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AKT — what it takes to pass.

For GP trainees: 160 SBAs, 22 clinical topic guides, and every 2024–2026 guideline update. The Applied Knowledge Test is won in the highest-yield domains and lost in the ones candidates neglect.

160Questions
2h 40mDuration
~67–70%Pass Mark

Examination Structure

Understanding the blueprint is your first step to passing.

ComponentDetailsStrategy
Total Questions160 Single Best Answer (SBA)No negative marking — attempt every question
Duration2 hours 40 minutes~1 minute per question — pace yourself
Clinical Medicine80% (~128 questions)Your highest-yield domain — maximise here
Evidence-Based Practice10% (~16 questions)Lowest scoring domain nationally — prioritise
Organisation & Mgmt10% (~16 questions)DVLA, fit notes, safeguarding, ethics
Pass MarkVariable (~67–70%)Aim for 75%+ for margin of error

Critical Guideline Updates 2024–2026

These must-know changes are examination-critical. Memorise them.

NG245 — Asthma (Nov 2024)AIR therapy first-line (ICS/formoterol PRN) for adults ≥12 years. SABA-only is no longer recommended.
NG106 — Heart Failure (Sept 2025)Four Pillars simultaneously for HFrEF: ACEi + Beta-blocker + MRA + SGLT2i.
NG28 — Type 2 Diabetes (Feb 2026)Metformin MR + SGLT2i as dual first-line for all patients.
NG196 — Atrial FibrillationDOACs first-line (not warfarin). CHA₂DS₂-VASc scoring.
NG246 — ObesityTirzepatide approved from June 2025.
NG109 — UTINitrofurantoin first-line. Methenamine for prevention.

22 Clinical Topic Guides

The RCGP curriculum mapped to 22 clinical areas.

1Allergy & Clinical ImmunologyAnaphylaxis, food allergy, drug allergy
2Cardiovascular HealthHypertension, HF, AF, IHD — NG106, NG196
3DermatologyEczema, psoriasis, skin cancer
4ENT, Speech & HearingOtitis, vertigo, FeverPAIN (NG84)
5Eyes & VisionRed eye, acute visual loss, glaucoma
6GastroenterologyGORD, IBS, IBD, 2WW referrals
7Genomic MedicineFH, BRCA, Lynch, pharmacogenomics
8Gynaecology & BreastHMB, endometriosis, menopause HRT
9HaematologyAnaemia, anticoagulation
10Infectious Diseases & TravelUTI, sepsis, immunisations
11Learning Disability NewAnnual health checks, capacity
12Maternity & Reproductive NewContraception, UKMEC 2025
13Mental HealthDepression (NG222), anxiety, psychosis
14Metabolic & EndocrinologyDiabetes (NG28), thyroid, obesity
15Musculoskeletal HealthOA, RA, gout (NG219), osteoporosis
16NeurodevelopmentalADHD, autism, tic disorders
17Neurology FlaggedHeadache, epilepsy, gait
18Renal & UrologyCKD, UTI (NG109), prostate
19Respiratory HealthAsthma (NG245), COPD, lung cancer
20Sexual HealthSTIs, HIV/PrEP, ED
21Smoking, Alcohol & SubstanceVarenicline, AUDIT-C
22Urgent & Unscheduled CareSepsis (NEWS2), anaphylaxis

Topic Guides — Preambles & Example Questions

Tap any topic to open its briefing, worked example questions, and its flashcard deck.

The AKT tests the emergency recognition and dose of anaphylaxis far more than the immunology behind it. Know the adult IM adrenaline dose cold (500 micrograms of 1:1000), the anterolateral thigh as the site, and the fact that a biphasic reaction is why patients are observed. Distinguish true IgE-mediated allergy from intolerance, and remember that a documented penicillin allergy changes antibiotic choice across the whole curriculum.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 24-year-old collapses at a restaurant with facial swelling, widespread urticaria and audible wheeze minutes after eating. She is hypotensive. What is the immediate treatment?
  1. A Adrenaline 500 micrograms (0.5 mL of 1:1000) IM
  2. B Adrenaline 500 micrograms (0.5 mL of 1:10,000) IV
  3. C Chlorphenamine 10 mg IV
  4. D Hydrocortisone 200 mg IM
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Anaphylaxis is treated with IM adrenaline 500 micrograms of 1:1000 into the anterolateral thigh. IV adrenaline is reserved for specialist/cardiac-arrest settings. Antihistamines and steroids are adjuncts, never first-line.
Q2A patient reports that penicillin gave them a widespread itchy rash and lip swelling as a child. Which antibiotic carries the greatest risk of cross-reactivity?
  1. A Clarithromycin
  2. B Cefalexin
  3. C Ciprofloxacin
  4. D Trimethoprim
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Cephalosporins (cefalexin) share the beta-lactam ring and carry the highest cross-reactivity with a true penicillin allergy. Macrolides, quinolones and trimethoprim are structurally unrelated and are safer alternatives.
Q3Following successful treatment of anaphylaxis in the community, what is the single most important reason to arrange hospital observation?
  1. A To repeat the adrenaline dose routinely
  2. B Risk of a biphasic reaction
  3. C To measure mast cell tryptase daily
  4. D To start long-term antihistamines
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Biphasic reactions can occur hours after apparent recovery, so observation is required. Tryptase is taken as timed samples (not daily), and adrenaline is repeated only if symptoms persist or recur.
Flashcard deck Allergy & Clinical Immunology — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Cardiovascular is the single biggest chunk of Clinical Medicine, so marks here are decisive. Anchor to the current guideline changes: the four pillars of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction started together (NG106), DOACs first-line in AF with CHA₂DS₂-VASc and ORBIT/HAS-BLED (NG196), and the QRISK-driven statin threshold of 10%. Know step-wise hypertension therapy by age and ethnicity.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 58-year-old man of Black African family origin has stage 1 hypertension confirmed on ABPM and a QRISK of 14%. He is not diabetic. What is the first-line antihypertensive?
  1. A ACE inhibitor
  2. B Beta-blocker
  3. C Calcium-channel blocker
  4. D Thiazide-like diuretic
Reveal answer
Correct answer: C
Reason: In patients of Black African or African-Caribbean family origin (any age) without diabetes, a calcium-channel blocker is first-line rather than an ACE inhibitor/ARB, which are less effective as monotherapy in this group.
Q2A 70-year-old with newly diagnosed non-valvular AF has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. What is the most appropriate stroke-prevention treatment?
  1. A Aspirin 75 mg daily
  2. B A direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
  3. C No treatment; score too low
  4. D Clopidogrel 75 mg daily
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: With CHA₂DS₂-VASc ≥2, anticoagulation is indicated, and NG196 makes DOACs first-line over warfarin. Antiplatelets are not recommended for stroke prevention in AF.
Q3A patient with HFrEF is already on ramipril and bisoprolol and remains symptomatic. Which addition reflects current NICE guidance?
  1. A Digoxin
  2. B An SGLT2 inhibitor and an MRA
  3. C Amlodipine
  4. D Ivabradine as monotherapy
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: NG106 supports the 'four pillars' — ACEi/ARNI, beta-blocker, MRA and SGLT2 inhibitor — for HFrEF. Adding an MRA and SGLT2 inhibitor is the guideline-concordant step.
Flashcard decks Cardiovascular Health — Common Questions Deck 1 (70) · Deck 2 (151, SBA+EMQ) · Deck 3 (NICE guidelines, teach-then-check) Deck 1 · 70 cards → Deck 2 · 151 cards → Deck 3 · NICE teaching → Deck 4 · Mastery → Topic Index · 88 topics →

Dermatology is heavily image-based, so pair each described lesion with its diagnosis and first-line management. The examiners reward recognising 2-week-wait features of melanoma (the ABCDE and the 7-point checklist), the emollient-plus-topical-steroid ladder for eczema, and vitamin D analogue plus steroid for plaque psoriasis. Know which drugs (lithium, beta-blockers) worsen psoriasis.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 62-year-old presents with a pigmented lesion on the calf that has enlarged, developed an irregular border and bled. What is the most appropriate action?
  1. A Reassure and review in 6 months
  2. B Prescribe a topical steroid
  3. C Urgent (2-week-wait) suspected-melanoma referral
  4. D Cryotherapy in primary care
Reveal answer
Correct answer: C
Reason: Change in size, irregular border and bleeding score highly on the 7-point checklist for melanoma, mandating an urgent suspected-cancer referral. Excision or cryotherapy in primary care is inappropriate for a possible melanoma.
Q2A child with atopic eczema has a flare with dry, itchy, inflamed skin but no infection. What is the cornerstone of management?
  1. A Oral antibiotics
  2. B Generous emollients plus a topical corticosteroid
  3. C Oral corticosteroids
  4. D Topical antifungal
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Liberal emollients form the base of all eczema care, with a topical corticosteroid of appropriate potency for active inflammation. Antibiotics are only for secondary bacterial infection.
Q3Which commonly prescribed drug is well recognised to exacerbate psoriasis?
  1. A Amlodipine
  2. B Lithium
  3. C Metformin
  4. D Levothyroxine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Lithium is a classic psoriasis trigger; beta-blockers and antimalarials are others. The remaining options are not associated with worsening psoriasis.
Flashcard deck Dermatology — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

ENT questions cluster around when NOT to give antibiotics. Use FeverPAIN or Centor for sore throat (NG84), know the delayed/no-antibiotic strategy for otitis media, and separate the vertigo syndromes: BPPV (seconds, positional, Dix-Hallpike/Epley), vestibular neuritis (days, no hearing loss) and Ménière's (hours, hearing loss and tinnitus). Unilateral persistent symptoms warrant referral.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 30-year-old has brief rotational vertigo lasting seconds, triggered by rolling over in bed, with no hearing loss or tinnitus. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. A Ménière's disease
  2. B Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo
  3. C Vestibular neuritis
  4. D Acoustic neuroma
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Short, position-triggered vertigo without auditory symptoms is characteristic of BPPV, confirmed by Dix-Hallpike and treated with the Epley manoeuvre. Ménière's has hearing loss/tinnitus; neuritis lasts days.
Q2A patient with a sore throat scores 4 on FeverPAIN. What does this most support?
  1. A No antibiotic and reassurance only
  2. B Offering an antibiotic
  3. C Immediate tonsillectomy referral
  4. D Antiviral therapy
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A high FeverPAIN score (4–5) suggests streptococcal infection and supports offering an antibiotic. Low scores support no or delayed prescribing.
Q3An adult reports gradual unilateral hearing loss with persistent tinnitus on the same side. What is the key concern requiring referral?
  1. A Impacted earwax
  2. B Vestibular schwannoma (acoustic neuroma)
  3. C Otitis externa
  4. D Presbycusis
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Unilateral, progressive sensorineural hearing loss with tinnitus raises suspicion of a vestibular schwannoma and warrants referral for imaging. Presbycusis is typically bilateral and symmetrical.
Flashcard deck ENT, Speech & Hearing — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

The red-eye differential is a favourite because getting it wrong risks sight. Separate the emergencies — acute angle-closure glaucoma (painful red eye, haloes, fixed mid-dilated pupil), anterior uveitis and scleritis — from benign conjunctivitis. For sudden painless visual loss, know the vascular causes (central retinal artery/vein occlusion) and giant cell arteritis, which demands immediate high-dose steroids.

Example AKT Questions

Q1An older woman presents with a painful red eye, haloes around lights, a hazy cornea and a fixed mid-dilated pupil, plus nausea. What is the diagnosis?
  1. A Bacterial conjunctivitis
  2. B Acute angle-closure glaucoma
  3. C Episcleritis
  4. D Blepharitis
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Severe eye pain with haloes, corneal haze and a fixed mid-dilated pupil is acute angle-closure glaucoma — a sight-threatening emergency needing same-day ophthalmology. Conjunctivitis is not painful and spares the pupil.
Q2A 72-year-old reports sudden painless loss of vision in one eye, with recent jaw claudication and scalp tenderness. What is the immediate priority?
  1. A Routine optician review
  2. B High-dose corticosteroids for giant cell arteritis
  3. C Topical antibiotics
  4. D Reassurance
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: These features indicate giant cell arteritis with anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy; high-dose steroids must be started immediately to protect the other eye, before biopsy.
Q3A contact-lens wearer has a painful red eye with photophobia and a corneal epithelial defect that stains with fluorescein. What must be excluded urgently?
  1. A Allergic conjunctivitis
  2. B Microbial keratitis
  3. C Dry eye
  4. D Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A staining corneal defect with pain and photophobia in a lens wearer suggests microbial keratitis, needing urgent ophthalmology referral to prevent sight loss.
Flashcard deck Eyes & Vision — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

GI marks hinge on recognising red flags for urgent referral versus safe symptomatic management. Learn the dyspepsia/2-week-wait rules (dysphagia at any age; new dyspepsia ≥55 with weight loss), the positive diagnostic criteria for IBS, and when to check faecal calprotectin (to distinguish IBD from IBS). Test-and-treat H. pylori is the pathway for uncomplicated dyspepsia.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 68-year-old man reports progressive difficulty swallowing solids over 6 weeks and 4 kg weight loss. What is the most appropriate action?
  1. A Trial of a proton-pump inhibitor for 8 weeks
  2. B Urgent 2-week-wait upper GI endoscopy referral
  3. C Reassure and review in 3 months
  4. D Prescribe an antacid
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Progressive dysphagia — at any age — is an alarm symptom mandating an urgent suspected-cancer endoscopy referral. Empirical acid suppression risks delaying an oesophageal cancer diagnosis.
Q2A 28-year-old woman has 4 months of abdominal pain relieved by defecation, bloating and alternating bowel habit, with normal bloods and no red flags. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. A Coeliac disease
  2. B Irritable bowel syndrome
  3. C Crohn's disease
  4. D Colorectal cancer
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Pain relieved by defecation with altered stool form/frequency and no alarm features fits the positive diagnostic criteria for IBS. Coeliac serology and calprotectin help exclude mimics.
Q3Which test best helps distinguish inflammatory bowel disease from IBS in primary care?
  1. A Faecal calprotectin
  2. B Serum amylase
  3. C Full blood count alone
  4. D Abdominal X-ray
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Faecal calprotectin is a marker of intestinal inflammation and helps differentiate IBD from IBS, guiding who needs gastroenterology referral.
Flashcard deck Gastroenterology — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Genomics is a smaller but growing domain. Focus on recognising red-flag family histories that warrant referral — early breast/ovarian cancer (BRCA), young colorectal cancer (Lynch), and premature cardiac death or very high cholesterol (familial hypercholesterolaemia). Know the autosomal-dominant inheritance pattern and the practical point that FH needs early, aggressive statin therapy.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 30-year-old has an LDL cholesterol of 6.5 mmol/L and a father who had a myocardial infarction at 42. What condition should be actively considered?
  1. A Type 2 diabetes
  2. B Familial hypercholesterolaemia
  3. C Hypothyroidism
  4. D Metabolic syndrome
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Very high LDL with premature coronary disease in a first-degree relative suggests familial hypercholesterolaemia (autosomal dominant); the Simon Broome/DLCN criteria guide diagnosis and referral for early statin therapy.
Q2A woman's mother and maternal aunt both developed breast cancer before age 45. Which referral is most appropriate?
  1. A Routine mammography only
  2. B Clinical genetics / familial cancer service
  3. C No action needed
  4. D Annual CA-125 in primary care
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A strong family history of early breast cancer raises the possibility of a BRCA mutation, warranting referral to a familial cancer/genetics service for risk assessment and possible testing.
Q3Multiple relatives with colorectal and endometrial cancer at young ages most suggests which hereditary syndrome?
  1. A Lynch syndrome
  2. B Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
  3. C Gilbert's syndrome
  4. D Wilson's disease
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Lynch syndrome (hereditary non-polyposis colorectal cancer) classically causes early colorectal and endometrial cancers and warrants genetics referral and surveillance.
Flashcard deck Genomic Medicine — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

This area rewards knowing first-line treatments and referral triggers. For heavy menstrual bleeding with no structural cause, the LNG-IUS is first-line. Know the menopause/HRT rules — combined HRT if a uterus is present, and the small breast-cancer risk balanced against symptom control — plus 2-week-wait breast referral criteria for suspicious lumps.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 40-year-old with heavy menstrual bleeding, a normal examination and ultrasound, and no wish to conceive imminently, wants treatment. What is first-line?
  1. A Tranexamic acid only
  2. B Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system (LNG-IUS)
  3. C Endometrial ablation
  4. D Hysterectomy
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: For HMB without structural or histological abnormality, the LNG-IUS is first-line, being effective and reversible. Tranexamic/mefenamic acid are options if the IUS is declined.
Q2A 52-year-old with an intact uterus and troublesome vasomotor symptoms wants HRT. What is the appropriate regimen?
  1. A Oestrogen-only HRT
  2. B Combined oestrogen and progestogen HRT
  3. C Testosterone alone
  4. D No HRT is ever appropriate at this age
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Women with a uterus need combined HRT; unopposed oestrogen increases endometrial cancer risk. The progestogen provides endometrial protection.
Q3A 55-year-old presents with a new, hard, fixed breast lump. What is the correct pathway?
  1. A Reassure; review in 6 months
  2. B Urgent 2-week-wait breast referral
  3. C Prescribe antibiotics
  4. D Repeat examination in 2 weeks first
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A new discrete lump in a woman aged 30 or over meets criteria for an urgent suspected breast-cancer referral for triple assessment.
Flashcard deck Gynaecology & Breast — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Haematology in the AKT is mostly the anaemias and anticoagulation safety. Use the MCV to triage — microcytic (iron deficiency, always seek a source of GI loss in older patients), normocytic (chronic disease), macrocytic (B12/folate, alcohol, hypothyroidism). Know DOAC versus warfarin monitoring and the management of a high INR.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 70-year-old man has iron-deficiency anaemia with a microcytic picture and no obvious bleeding source. What is the essential next step?
  1. A Start iron and take no further action
  2. B Investigate the gastrointestinal tract for a source
  3. C Transfuse immediately
  4. D Repeat FBC in one year
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Unexplained iron-deficiency anaemia in an older adult requires investigation of the GI tract (endoscopy/colonoscopy) to exclude malignancy, alongside iron replacement.
Q2A patient with macrocytic anaemia has a low serum B12 and folate. Which should generally be corrected first?
  1. A Folate first
  2. B Vitamin B12 first
  3. C Both simultaneously without concern
  4. D Iron first
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Replacing folate before B12 in combined deficiency can precipitate subacute combined degeneration of the cord, so B12 is corrected first.
Q3Which statement about DOACs compared with warfarin is correct?
  1. A DOACs require regular INR monitoring
  2. B DOACs do not need routine anticoagulation monitoring
  3. C DOACs have no bleeding risk
  4. D DOACs are first-line only in valvular AF
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: DOACs do not need routine INR monitoring (a key advantage over warfarin) and are first-line in non-valvular AF; they still carry bleeding risk.
Flashcard deck Haematology — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Recognise sepsis early (NEWS2, the red-flag features) and know when antibiotics are and are not indicated. The immunisation schedule is examined every sitting — live vaccines and contraindications especially. For travel, malaria prophylaxis and the notifiable diseases list recur. Antimicrobial stewardship underlies many stems: shortest effective course, right drug.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 68-year-old with a chest infection has a respiratory rate of 26, new confusion, and a systolic BP of 88 mmHg. What is the priority?
  1. A Routine outpatient antibiotics
  2. B Treat as sepsis and arrange urgent admission
  3. C Reassure and safety-net
  4. D Await sputum culture before acting
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: New confusion, tachypnoea and hypotension are red-flag features of sepsis; the priority is urgent admission and the sepsis pathway, not delaying for cultures.
Q2Which vaccine is contraindicated in a significantly immunocompromised patient?
  1. A Inactivated influenza vaccine
  2. B MMR (live attenuated)
  3. C Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine
  4. D Tetanus toxoid
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Live attenuated vaccines such as MMR are generally contraindicated in significant immunosuppression; inactivated and toxoid vaccines are safe.
Q3A healthy woman has an uncomplicated lower UTI. What best reflects stewardship-based management?
  1. A A 7-day course of a broad-spectrum antibiotic
  2. B A short course of nitrofurantoin (if eGFR adequate)
  3. C A quinolone first-line
  4. D Prophylactic antibiotics for a year
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Uncomplicated lower UTI in women is treated with a short course of nitrofurantoin first-line (renal function permitting), reflecting stewardship; quinolones are reserved.
Flashcard deck Infectious Diseases & Travel — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

A newer curriculum area with a strong ethical and reasonable-adjustments theme. Know the annual health check for people on the LD register, diagnostic overshadowing (attributing physical symptoms to the disability and missing disease), and the Mental Capacity Act framework — capacity is decision-specific and presumed until shown otherwise.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A man with a learning disability presents with new self-injurious behaviour. What is the key risk the clinician must avoid?
  1. A Over-investigating minor symptoms
  2. B Diagnostic overshadowing — missing an underlying physical cause
  3. C Referring too readily
  4. D Prescribing analgesia
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Diagnostic overshadowing wrongly attributes new symptoms to the learning disability itself; new behaviour change may signal pain or physical illness that must be actively sought.
Q2Under the Mental Capacity Act, which statement is correct?
  1. A Capacity is a global, all-or-nothing status
  2. B Capacity is decision- and time-specific
  3. C A person lacks capacity if they make an unwise choice
  4. D Only a psychiatrist can assess capacity
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Capacity is assessed for a specific decision at a specific time; an unwise decision does not equal incapacity, and any suitably informed clinician can assess it.
Q3What is the purpose of the annual health check for adults with a learning disability?
  1. A To remove them from the GP list
  2. B To proactively identify unmet and undiagnosed health needs
  3. C To replace all specialist care
  4. D To assess capacity only
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Annual health checks proactively detect undiagnosed and unmet physical and mental health needs in a group with higher morbidity and communication barriers.
Flashcard deck Learning Disability — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Contraception questions turn on UKMEC categories — matching a medical condition to whether a method is safe. Know the absolute contraindications to combined hormonal contraception (migraine with aura, high VTE risk, breast cancer), emergency contraception options and timings, and the basics of safe prescribing in pregnancy and breastfeeding.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 32-year-old requests the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has migraine with aura. What is the appropriate advice?
  1. A The COCP is first-line
  2. B Combined hormonal contraception is contraindicated (UKMEC 4)
  3. C No restriction applies
  4. D Only if she is a non-smoker
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Migraine with aura is UKMEC category 4 for combined hormonal contraception because of the stroke risk; progestogen-only methods or the IUD are appropriate alternatives.
Q2A woman presents 3 days after unprotected intercourse wanting the most effective emergency contraception. What is the best option?
  1. A Levonorgestrel oral
  2. B Copper intrauterine device
  3. C Ulipristal only
  4. D No option is effective at this point
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: The copper IUD is the most effective emergency contraception and can be inserted up to 5 days after intercourse (or ovulation), outperforming oral methods.
Q3Which analgesic is best avoided in the third trimester of pregnancy?
  1. A Paracetamol
  2. B Ibuprofen (NSAID)
  3. C Codeine short-term
  4. D Topical emollient
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: NSAIDs such as ibuprofen are avoided in the third trimester owing to risks including premature ductus arteriosus closure; paracetamol is the preferred simple analgesic.
Flashcard deck Maternity & Reproductive — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Common mental health presentations dominate here. Know the stepped-care model for depression and anxiety, first-line SSRI choice and the safety issues (young people and suicidality, SSRI discontinuation, serotonin syndrome, hyponatraemia in the elderly). Recognise red flags for psychosis and risk that require urgent referral, and the safeguarding overlap.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 25-year-old with a first episode of moderate depression, no bipolar features, agrees to medication. What is the usual first-line drug?
  1. A Amitriptyline
  2. B An SSRI such as sertraline
  3. C A benzodiazepine
  4. D An antipsychotic
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: An SSRI (e.g. sertraline) is first-line pharmacological treatment for moderate depression. TCAs are more toxic in overdose; benzodiazepines and antipsychotics are not first-line.
Q2An older patient on an SSRI develops new confusion and a low serum sodium. What adverse effect should be suspected?
  1. A Hyperkalaemia
  2. B SSRI-induced hyponatraemia (SIADH)
  3. C Hypercalcaemia
  4. D Vitamin D toxicity
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: SSRIs can cause hyponatraemia via SIADH, especially in older adults; new confusion with low sodium should prompt review of the drug.
Q3Which presentation most warrants urgent (same-day) mental health assessment?
  1. A Mild low mood for 2 weeks
  2. B Active suicidal ideation with a plan and intent
  3. C Occasional worry about work
  4. D Difficulty sleeping alone
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Active suicidal ideation with plan and intent is a high-risk situation requiring urgent specialist assessment and a safety plan.
Flashcard deck Mental Health — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Diabetes is examined every sitting — know the diagnostic thresholds (HbA1c 48 mmol/mol), the NG28 treatment ladder with early SGLT2 inhibitors where there is cardiovascular/renal risk, and sick-day rules. For thyroid, interpret TFT patterns and the treatment of hypo/hyperthyroidism. Obesity now includes the newer pharmacotherapies.

Example AKT Questions

Q1Which HbA1c value is diagnostic of type 2 diabetes in a symptomatic patient?
  1. A 42 mmol/mol
  2. B 48 mmol/mol or above
  3. C 39 mmol/mol
  4. D Any value with symptoms
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: An HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or above is diagnostic; 42–47 mmol/mol indicates increased risk (pre-diabetes). Symptomatic patients need one diagnostic result.
Q2A patient with type 2 diabetes and established cardiovascular disease is on metformin. Which class should be added per current NICE guidance?
  1. A Sulfonylurea
  2. B SGLT2 inhibitor with proven CV benefit
  3. C Pioglitazone
  4. D A second-generation antihistamine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: NG28 recommends adding an SGLT2 inhibitor with proven cardiovascular benefit in patients with established CVD, alongside metformin.
Q3A tired patient has a raised TSH with a low free T4. What does this indicate?
  1. A Primary hyperthyroidism
  2. B Primary hypothyroidism
  3. C Secondary hypothyroidism
  4. D Normal thyroid function
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A high TSH with low free T4 is primary hypothyroidism, treated with levothyroxine titrated to TSH.
Flashcard deck Metabolic & Endocrinology — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

MSK marks come from separating inflammatory from mechanical disease and knowing urgent referrals. Early inflammatory arthritis (persistent early-morning stiffness, small-joint swelling) needs prompt rheumatology referral. Know gout management (acute versus urate-lowering, NG219), the FRAX/DEXA pathway for osteoporosis, and cauda equina/red-flag back pain.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 45-year-old has 8 weeks of symmetrical small-joint pain and swelling with early-morning stiffness lasting over an hour. What is the priority?
  1. A Reassure; likely osteoarthritis
  2. B Urgent rheumatology referral for suspected inflammatory arthritis
  3. C Long-term opioids
  4. D Repeat bloods in a year
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Persistent symmetrical small-joint synovitis with prolonged morning stiffness suggests rheumatoid arthritis; early referral improves outcomes through prompt DMARD therapy.
Q2During an acute gout attack, which is the appropriate initial treatment?
  1. A Start allopurinol immediately at high dose
  2. B An NSAID or colchicine for the acute attack
  3. C Aspirin
  4. D Urate-lowering therapy alone
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Acute gout is treated with an NSAID or colchicine (or a steroid). Urate-lowering therapy such as allopurinol is started later; beginning it during an attack can worsen it.
Q3Which feature of back pain most strongly indicates a possible cauda equina emergency?
  1. A Pain worse on movement
  2. B New urinary retention with saddle anaesthesia
  3. C A single dermatomal ache
  4. D Morning stiffness only
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: New bladder dysfunction (retention) with saddle anaesthesia and bilateral leg symptoms is a red flag for cauda equina syndrome, needing emergency imaging and referral.
Flashcard deck Musculoskeletal Health — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

This area focuses on recognition, referral and shared-care rather than initiating specialist drugs. Know the core features of ADHD and autism spectrum disorder, that diagnosis is specialist-led, and the primary-care role in monitoring (e.g. growth and cardiovascular checks for ADHD stimulants). Watch for the safeguarding and educational dimensions.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A child on methylphenidate for ADHD attends for shared-care monitoring. Which parameters must be checked regularly?
  1. A Liver enzymes only
  2. B Height, weight, pulse and blood pressure
  3. C Vision and hearing only
  4. D Thyroid function only
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Stimulant monitoring includes growth (height and weight) and cardiovascular parameters (pulse and blood pressure) because of effects on appetite/growth and the cardiovascular system.
Q2Which best describes the diagnostic process for autism spectrum disorder?
  1. A A single GP consultation
  2. B Specialist multidisciplinary assessment
  3. C A blood test
  4. D An X-ray
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: ASD is diagnosed through specialist multidisciplinary assessment of development and behaviour across settings; primary care recognises and refers.
Q3A GP suspects ADHD in a 7-year-old. What is the appropriate initial step?
  1. A Start a stimulant in primary care
  2. B Refer to the specialist ADHD/neurodevelopmental service
  3. C Prescribe melatonin
  4. D Advise no action until adulthood
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Diagnosis and initiation of ADHD medication are specialist-led; the GP's role is recognition, gathering information and referral.
Flashcard deck Neurodevelopmental — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Neurology — and gait in particular — has been flagged by examiners across consecutive AKTs, so it is worth disproportionate revision. Master the headache red flags (thunderclap, new headache with focal signs, features of raised intracranial pressure or GCA), the driving rules after a seizure (DVLA), and localising gait: UMN vs LMN, cerebellar vs parkinsonian.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A 50-year-old describes a sudden 'worst-ever' headache reaching maximum intensity within seconds. What is the priority?
  1. A Prescribe a triptan
  2. B Urgent assessment for subarachnoid haemorrhage
  3. C Reassure; likely tension headache
  4. D Start propranolol prophylaxis
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A thunderclap headache peaking within seconds is a red flag for subarachnoid haemorrhage, requiring urgent imaging (CT) and assessment, not symptomatic treatment.
Q2A patient has a first unprovoked seizure. What must be advised regarding driving (Group 1 licence)?
  1. A No restriction
  2. B They must stop driving and inform the DVLA
  3. C They may drive after 24 hours
  4. D Only night driving is restricted
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: After a first unprovoked seizure the patient must cease driving and notify the DVLA; licensing depends on a defined seizure-free period.
Q3A patient has a broad-based, unsteady gait with past-pointing and intention tremor. Which localisation is most likely?
  1. A Cerebellar
  2. B Parkinsonian
  3. C Upper motor neurone spasticity
  4. D Peripheral sensory
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: A broad-based ataxic gait with intention tremor and past-pointing localises to the cerebellum; parkinsonian gait is shuffling with reduced arm swing.
Flashcard decks Neurology — Common Questions Deck 1: 60 · Deck 2: 48 · Deck 3: NICE teaching · Deck 4: Mastery (teaching + SBA) Deck 1 · 60 cards → Deck 2 · 48 cards → Deck 3 · NICE teaching → Deck 4 · Mastery → Topic Index · 36 topics →

Know the CKD staging by eGFR and ACR, the drugs to review or stop in declining renal function, and when to refer. UTI management follows NG109 (nitrofurantoin first-line, methenamine for prevention). For prostate, interpret LUTS, PSA counselling and 2-week-wait referral for suspected prostate cancer.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A woman with an uncomplicated lower UTI has an adequate eGFR. What is first-line antibiotic per NG109?
  1. A Amoxicillin
  2. B Nitrofurantoin
  3. C Ciprofloxacin
  4. D Co-amoxiclav
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: NG109 makes nitrofurantoin first-line for uncomplicated lower UTI when renal function allows; methenamine is used for prophylaxis, not acute treatment.
Q2Which change should prompt review of a patient's regular medications in worsening CKD?
  1. A A rising eGFR
  2. B A significant fall in eGFR
  3. C Stable potassium
  4. D Normal urine dip
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A significant fall in eGFR requires reviewing renally-cleared and nephrotoxic drugs (e.g. metformin, NSAIDs, some antibiotics) and adjusting or stopping them.
Q3An older man has a hard, irregular prostate on examination and a raised PSA. What is the appropriate pathway?
  1. A Reassure and repeat PSA in a year
  2. B Urgent 2-week-wait urology referral
  3. C Start an alpha-blocker and review
  4. D Prescribe antibiotics
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A hard, irregular (craggy) prostate with raised PSA suggests possible prostate cancer and warrants an urgent suspected-cancer referral.
Flashcard deck Renal & Urology — Common Questions Men’s Health topic index available Renal & Urology · 27 →Men’s Health cards · 34 →Men’s Health index · 36 →

The asthma guidance changed substantially (NG245): AIR — anti-inflammatory reliever therapy with ICS/formoterol — is now central, and SABA-only treatment is no longer recommended. Know COPD inhaled therapy escalation, the smoking-cessation offer, and the lung-cancer 2-week-wait/CXR criteria for persistent or red-flag respiratory symptoms.

Example AKT Questions

Q1Reflecting NG245, which statement about asthma reliever therapy in adults is now correct?
  1. A SABA-only treatment remains first-line
  2. B ICS/formoterol (AIR) is preferred; SABA-only is no longer recommended
  3. C Oral steroids are first-line maintenance
  4. D Long-acting beta-agonist monotherapy is preferred
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: NG245 moved away from SABA-only management toward anti-inflammatory reliever therapy (ICS/formoterol), which reduces exacerbation risk. LABA monotherapy is unsafe.
Q2A 66-year-old smoker has had a cough for 4 weeks. What is the appropriate initial investigation for suspected lung cancer?
  1. A Reassurance only
  2. B An urgent chest X-ray
  3. C Immediate chemotherapy
  4. D Spirometry alone
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A persistent cough in an older smoker warrants an urgent chest X-ray to investigate for lung cancer, with 2-week-wait referral if suspicious.
Q3Which single intervention most improves long-term outcomes in COPD?
  1. A Regular antibiotics
  2. B Smoking cessation
  3. C Long-term oral steroids
  4. D Cough suppressants
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Stopping smoking is the single most effective intervention to slow decline in COPD; pharmacotherapy and pulmonary rehabilitation add symptomatic benefit.
Flashcard deck Respiratory Health — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Focus on first-line STI management and partner notification, testing windows, and safeguarding (under-16s, Fraser competence, and non-consensual concerns). Know the HIV testing offer and PrEP, and the cardiovascular workup and treatment ladder for erectile dysfunction (ED can be an early cardiovascular warning).

Example AKT Questions

Q1A young man has confirmed uncomplicated genital chlamydia. What is the first-line antibiotic?
  1. A Azithromycin single dose
  2. B Doxycycline for 7 days
  3. C Amoxicillin
  4. D Ciprofloxacin
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Doxycycline for 7 days is now first-line for uncomplicated genital chlamydia (superseding single-dose azithromycin), with partner notification advised.
Q2A 15-year-old requests contraception and declines to involve her parents. What principle governs whether she can be treated?
  1. A Parental consent is always required
  2. B Assessment of Fraser competence
  3. C She must wait until 16
  4. D Only emergency contraception is ever allowed
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Fraser guidelines allow treatment of a competent under-16 without parental consent if specific criteria are met, alongside safeguarding assessment.
Q3A 55-year-old presents with new erectile dysfunction. Besides treating ED, what should be assessed?
  1. A Only psychological factors
  2. B Cardiovascular risk factors
  3. C Vision
  4. D Hearing
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: ED can be an early marker of cardiovascular disease, so cardiovascular risk assessment is important alongside PDE5-inhibitor treatment.
Flashcard deck Sexual Health — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

Screening and brief intervention thread through this area. Use AUDIT-C to identify hazardous drinking, know the CAGE and the features of dependence and withdrawal (and the risk of delirium tremens/Wernicke's — give thiamine). For smoking, know the pharmacological aids and combining behavioural support for best quit rates.

Example AKT Questions

Q1A dependent drinker presenting in acute alcohol withdrawal is at risk of Wernicke's encephalopathy. What should be given?
  1. A High-dose vitamin C
  2. B Parenteral thiamine (vitamin B1)
  3. C Vitamin D
  4. D Iron
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Thiamine (B1) prevents and treats Wernicke's encephalopathy; giving glucose without thiamine in at-risk drinkers can precipitate it.
Q2Which tool is a brief validated screen for hazardous alcohol use in primary care?
  1. A PHQ-9
  2. B AUDIT-C
  3. C GAD-7
  4. D MMSE
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: AUDIT-C is a short validated alcohol-use screening tool; PHQ-9 and GAD-7 screen for depression and anxiety respectively.
Q3Which approach gives the highest smoking-quit rates?
  1. A Willpower alone
  2. B Pharmacotherapy combined with behavioural support
  3. C A single leaflet
  4. D Abrupt withdrawal with no support
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Combining pharmacotherapy (e.g. varenicline or NRT) with behavioural support achieves the best cessation outcomes.
Flashcard deck Smoking, Alcohol & Substance — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

This pulls together time-critical recognition across the curriculum. NEWS2 drives escalation; know the sepsis red flags and the anaphylaxis algorithm (repeated from Allergy for a reason). Include the acute chest pain, stroke (FAST) and acute asthma pathways, and safe handover/safety-netting when managing undifferentiated acute presentations.

Example AKT Questions

Q1Which combination of NEWS2 observations should trigger the most urgent escalation?
  1. A Normal observations across the board
  2. B A high aggregate score with new confusion
  3. C Isolated mild tachycardia
  4. D A single low-normal temperature
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A high aggregate NEWS2 score, particularly with new confusion, indicates clinical deterioration and mandates urgent senior review and escalation.
Q2A patient has sudden facial droop, arm weakness and slurred speech that began 40 minutes ago. What is the correct action?
  1. A Reassure and review tomorrow
  2. B Emergency admission for suspected stroke (FAST positive)
  3. C Prescribe aspirin and send home
  4. D Arrange a routine outpatient scan
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: FAST-positive features within the treatment window require emergency admission to a stroke unit for imaging and possible thrombolysis/thrombectomy.
Q3In managing acute anaphylaxis, what is the correct route and strength of first-line adrenaline in an adult?
  1. A IV 1:10,000
  2. B IM 1:1000 (500 micrograms)
  3. C Subcutaneous 1:1000
  4. D Oral
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: First-line adrenaline in anaphylaxis is IM 1:1000, 500 micrograms, into the anterolateral thigh; the IV route is for specialist settings only.
Flashcard deck Urgent & Unscheduled Care — Common Questions Deck slot ready · upload pending

RCGP Flagged Problem Areas

From examiner feedback — these trip up candidates repeatedly.

AreaThe ChallengeYour Fix
NeurologyGait disturbances — flagged 4 consecutive AKTsMaster UMN vs LMN, cerebellar vs parkinsonian
Statistics / EBPForest plots, NNT/NNH — mean score 65.2%Drill 2×2 tables, formulas, plot interpretation
PrescribingSide effects, monitoring, interactionsFocus on high-risk drugs
Palliative CareSymptom management in last daysAnticipatory meds, syringe driver drugs
OphthalmologyRecognising conditions from imagesPractice image banks

UK Screening Programmes

Examined every sitting. Know the ages, intervals and tests.

ProgrammeAge RangeFrequencyTest
Cervical25–493-yearlyHPV primary
Cervical50–645-yearlyHPV primary
Breast50–703-yearlyMammogram
Bowel60–742-yearlyFIT
AAAMen 65OnceUltrasound
Diabetic EyeAll diabeticsAnnualDigital photography
Newborn Blood SpotDay 5OnceHeel prick
Newborn HearingAt birthOnceOAE/ABR

Examination Strategy

Before

Before the Exam

  • Revise little and often — spaced repetition beats cramming
  • Do questions actively — retrieval practice is most effective
  • Master EBP — lowest-scoring but very learnable
  • Practice image recognition (eyes, skin, ECGs)
During

During the Exam

  • Pace: ~1 minute per question
  • Answer everything — no negative marking
  • Flag uncertain questions and return if time permits
  • Never leave a blank
Focus

Focus Your Revision

  • Clinical Medicine (80%) — your biggest opportunity
  • Statistics/EBP — lowest-scoring, high-yield improvement
  • Neurology, Ophthalmology, Palliative — repeatedly flagged
  • New guidelines (NG245, NG106, NG28) — always examined