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Neurology Topic Index — every topic, tiered: Core · Important · Rare
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Neuro Examination & Localisation

Upper vs lower motor neuroneImportanttap to open ▾
UMN: increased tone, brisk reflexes, up-going plantars, no wasting/fasciculation, 'pyramidal' weakness. LMN: reduced tone, absent reflexes, wasting, fasciculation.
UMN signs: ↑tone (spasticity), hyperreflexia, extensor plantar (Babinski), minimal wasting.
LMN signs: ↓tone, hyporeflexia/areflexia, wasting, fasciculation.
MND: Uniquely mixes UMN + LMN signs with preserved sensation.
A patient has brisk reflexes, increased tone and up-going plantars in the legs. This pattern indicates what?
  • ALower motor neurone lesion
  • BUpper motor neurone lesion
  • CPeripheral neuropathy
  • DMyopathy
  • ENormal
Correct: B — Upper motor neurone lesion
Why: Increased tone, hyperreflexia and extensor plantars are upper motor neurone signs.
Options:
  • LMN gives ↓tone/absent reflexes.
  • (correct)
  • Would give sensory loss.
  • Weakness without these reflex changes.
  • Abnormal.
Cranial nervesImportanttap to open ▾
12 cranial nerves; common exam pointers: CN III palsy (down-and-out, ptosis, blown pupil — surgical vs medical), CN VII (facial — UMN spares forehead, LMN doesn't), CN V (trigeminal sensory + corneal reflex).
CN III: Ptosis, 'down and out' eye; fixed dilated pupil = compressive (aneurysm/uncal) — surgical.
CN VII: UMN lesion spares the forehead (stroke); LMN affects it (Bell’s).
CN VIII: Vestibular schwannoma — unilateral hearing loss + tinnitus.
A patient has a facial droop that spares the forehead. Where is the lesion?
  • ALower motor neurone (facial nerve)
  • BUpper motor neurone (e.g. stroke)
  • CNeuromuscular junction
  • DMuscle
  • ESkin
Correct: B — Upper motor neurone (e.g. stroke)
Why: Forehead sparing indicates an upper motor neurone facial lesion (the forehead has bilateral cortical innervation); Bell’s palsy (LMN) involves the forehead.
Options:
  • LMN involves the forehead.
  • (correct)
  • Different pattern.
  • Different pattern.
  • Not neurological.
DermatomesRare · recognise
Key landmarks: C2 back of skull, C6 thumb, C7 middle finger, C8 little finger, T4 nipples, T10 umbilicus, L1 groin, L4 knee, L5 big toe, S1 little toe/sole.
MyotomesRare · recognise
C5 shoulder abduction, C6 elbow flexion, C7 elbow extension, L2/3 hip flexion, L3/4 knee extension, L4 ankle dorsiflexion, L5 big-toe extension, S1 plantarflexion.
MRC power scaleRare · recognise
0 none · 1 flicker · 2 movement with gravity eliminated · 3 against gravity · 4 against resistance · 5 normal.
Extensor plantarsRare · recognise
Up-going great toe (Babinski) = UMN lesion. Combined with absent ankle jerks → think subacute combined degeneration, MND, or a mixed lesion.
Cerebellar diseaseImportanttap to open ▾
DANISH: Dysdiadochokinesia, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremor, Slurred/scanning speech, Hypotonia/heel-shin. Ipsilateral signs. Causes: stroke, MS, alcohol, tumour, paraneoplastic.
Signs (DANISH): Dysdiadochokinesia, Ataxia (broad-based gait), Nystagmus, Intention tremor, Scanning speech, Heel-shin incoordination.
Localisation: Signs are ipsilateral to the lesion.
Causes: Stroke (PICA), MS, alcohol, posterior fossa tumour, paraneoplastic.
A patient has a broad-based gait, intention tremor, past-pointing and scanning speech. Where is the lesion?
  • ABasal ganglia
  • BCerebellum
  • CFrontal lobe
  • DPeripheral nerve
  • ESpinal cord
Correct: B — Cerebellum
Why: Ataxia with intention tremor, past-pointing and scanning speech localises to the cerebellum (ipsilateral signs).
Options:
  • Gives parkinsonism.
  • (correct)
  • Different signs.
  • Sensory/LMN.
  • Different pattern.

Headache & Facial Pain

MigraineCoretap to open ▾
Recurrent, often unilateral throbbing headache ± aura, photo/phonophobia, nausea; hours to 3 days. Acute: triptan + NSAID/paracetamol. Prophylaxis: propranolol (avoid in asthma) or topiramate (teratogenic). Aura + COC contraindicated.
Diagnosis: ≥5 attacks, 4–72 h, unilateral/pulsating, moderate–severe, aggravated by activity, with nausea or photo/phonophobia.
Acute: Triptan + NSAID/paracetamol (± antiemetic).
Prophylaxis: Propranolol or topiramate; riboflavin 400 mg; amitriptyline.
Hormonal: Migraine with aura → combined pill contraindicated (stroke risk).
A 30-year-old woman with migraine WITH aura requests contraception. Which is contraindicated?
  • AProgestogen-only pill
  • BCopper IUD
  • CCombined oral contraceptive pill
  • DImplant
  • EDepot
Correct: C — Combined oral contraceptive pill
Why: Migraine with aura is UKMEC 4 for combined hormonal contraception due to ischaemic stroke risk.
Options:
  • Safe.
  • Safe.
  • (correct)
  • Safe.
  • Acceptable.
Tension-type headacheCoretap to open ▾
Bilateral, band-like, non-pulsatile, no nausea, not aggravated by activity. Acute: simple analgesia (paracetamol/NSAID), no opioids. Prophylaxis (chronic): consider amitriptyline / acupuncture.
Features: Bilateral pressing/tightening; mild–moderate; no vomiting; normal exam.
Acute: Aspirin/paracetamol/NSAID; avoid opioids.
Chronic: Amitriptyline or a course of acupuncture.
A 25-year-old has daily bilateral band-like headaches with no nausea and a normal exam. First-line acute treatment?
  • ASumatriptan
  • BSimple analgesia (paracetamol or NSAID)
  • CCodeine
  • DAmitriptyline
  • ETopiramate
Correct: B — Simple analgesia (paracetamol or NSAID)
Why: Tension-type headache is treated acutely with simple analgesia; opioids are avoided and triptans are for migraine.
Options:
  • For migraine.
  • (correct)
  • Opioids not advised.
  • Preventive, not acute.
  • Migraine preventive.
Cluster headacheImportanttap to open ▾
Strictly unilateral, severe periorbital pain, 15–180 min, in bouts, with autonomic features (lacrimation, nasal congestion, ptosis) and restlessness. Acute: high-flow oxygen + SC/nasal sumatriptan. Prophylaxis: verapamil.
Features: Unilateral orbital pain, 15–180 min, several/day in clusters, autonomic features, agitation.
Acute: 100% oxygen + subcutaneous/nasal sumatriptan.
Prevention: Verapamil.
A 38-year-old man has bouts of severe unilateral eye pain with a watering red eye, several times a day. Acute treatment?
  • AOral paracetamol
  • BHigh-flow oxygen + SC sumatriptan
  • COral codeine
  • DAmitriptyline
  • EVerapamil
Correct: B — High-flow oxygen + SC sumatriptan
Why: Cluster headache responds acutely to high-flow oxygen and a fast-acting triptan; verapamil is preventive.
Options:
  • Ineffective.
  • (correct)
  • Ineffective.
  • Not acute.
  • Preventive.
Medication-overuse headacheImportanttap to open ▾
Chronic daily headache from frequent acute analgesic use (especially opioids/triptans ≥10 days/month, or simple analgesics ≥15 days/month). Management is withdrawal of the overused drug.
Cause: Regular acute painkiller use paradoxically causes daily headache.
Manage: Abrupt withdrawal (simple analgesics/triptans) — warn of transient worsening; taper opioids.
Prevent: Limit acute treatment days per month.
A patient takes codeine most days for a daily headache. What is the likely diagnosis and management?
  • AMigraine — start a triptan
  • BMedication-overuse headache — withdraw the analgesic
  • CCluster — give oxygen
  • DTension — increase codeine
  • ETumour — image
Correct: B — Medication-overuse headache — withdraw the analgesic
Why: Frequent analgesic use (especially opioids) causes medication-overuse headache; the treatment is withdrawal of the overused drug.
Options:
  • More drug worsens it.
  • (correct)
  • Wrong diagnosis.
  • Escalating worsens it.
  • Not first thought here.
Temporal arteritis (giant cell arteritis)Importanttap to open ▾
New temporal headache + scalp tenderness + jaw claudication in >50s; risk of irreversible visual loss. Raised ESR/CRP; temporal artery biopsy. Start high-dose steroids immediately (60 mg if visual symptoms) — do not wait for biopsy.
Features: Unilateral temporal headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, ±visual loss; often with PMR.
Investigate: ESR/CRP raised; temporal artery biopsy (skip lesions).
Treat now: Prednisolone 40–60 mg immediately (60 mg + same-day ophthalmology if visual symptoms).
A 72-year-old has a new temporal headache, jaw claudication and transient visual blurring. Immediate management?
  • ASumatriptan
  • BHigh-dose prednisolone immediately + same-day ophthalmology
  • CCarbamazepine
  • DAmitriptyline
  • EWait for biopsy
Correct: B — High-dose prednisolone immediately + same-day ophthalmology
Why: Suspected GCA with visual symptoms is a sight-threatening emergency — give high-dose steroids at once; investigations must not delay treatment.
Options:
  • For migraine.
  • (correct)
  • For trigeminal neuralgia.
  • Not indicated.
  • Delay risks blindness.
Trigeminal neuralgiaImportanttap to open ▾
Brief, severe, electric-shock facial pain in a trigeminal division, triggered by touch/chewing. First-line carbamazepine. Refer if red flags (young, sensory loss, bilateral → ?MS) or refractory.
Features: Paroxysmal unilateral stabbing facial pain, trigger zones.
First-line: Carbamazepine.
Refer: Atypical features, under-40, bilateral, or poor control.
A 60-year-old has brief severe stabbing right-cheek pain triggered by brushing teeth. First-line drug?
  • AAmitriptyline
  • BCarbamazepine
  • CGabapentin
  • DSumatriptan
  • EParacetamol
Correct: B — Carbamazepine
Why: Trigeminal neuralgia is treated first-line with carbamazepine.
Options:
  • Not first-line.
  • (correct)
  • Second-line option.
  • For migraine.
  • Ineffective.

Stroke, Bleeds & Raised ICP

Stroke: assessment & acute managementCoretap to open ▾
FAST-positive/ongoing deficit → emergency admission. Urgent CT to exclude bleed; if ischaemic and ≤4.5 h → thrombolysis; large-vessel occlusion 6–24 h → thrombectomy; then aspirin 300 mg for 2 weeks.
Recognise: FAST; sudden focal deficit.
Image: Urgent non-contrast CT to exclude haemorrhage.
Reperfuse: Alteplase/tenecteplase ≤4.5 h; thrombectomy for large-vessel occlusion 6–24 h.
Then: Aspirin 300 mg × 2 weeks → clopidogrel; high-intensity statin; anticoagulate if AF.
A patient has FAST-positive symptoms present for 1 hour. What is the priority?
  • ATIA clinic in 24 h
  • BEmergency admission for CT and reperfusion
  • CAspirin and review
  • DRoutine referral
  • EReassure
Correct: B — Emergency admission for CT and reperfusion
Why: An ongoing focal deficit is a suspected stroke requiring emergency admission for imaging and possible thrombolysis/thrombectomy.
Options:
  • That’s for resolved TIA.
  • (correct)
  • Under-treats.
  • Too slow.
  • Unsafe.
TIACoretap to open ▾
Transient focal deficit that fully resolves. Give aspirin 300 mg immediately and refer to be seen by a specialist within 24 hours. ABCD2 no longer used to defer assessment.
Action: Aspirin 300 mg now; specialist assessment within 24 hours.
Then: Clopidogrel + statin; carotid imaging (endarterectomy if >70% symptomatic stenosis); manage AF.
Amaurosis fugax: Transient monocular visual loss = TIA equivalent.
A patient had 20 minutes of unilateral arm weakness yesterday, now fully resolved. Best management?
  • AReassure
  • BAspirin 300 mg and specialist review within 24 hours
  • CWarfarin now
  • DRoutine referral
  • ECT then discharge
Correct: B — Aspirin 300 mg and specialist review within 24 hours
Why: A suspected TIA needs immediate aspirin 300 mg and specialist assessment within 24 hours.
Options:
  • Needs assessment.
  • (correct)
  • Only if AF confirmed.
  • Too slow.
  • Insufficient.
Subarachnoid haemorrhageImportanttap to open ▾
Sudden 'worst-ever' thunderclap headache ± neck stiffness, photophobia, reduced consciousness. Urgent CT; if negative and still suspected, lumbar puncture ≥12 h (xanthochromia). Usually berry aneurysm; neurosurgical referral.
Features: Thunderclap occipital headache peaking in seconds; meningism; may have focal signs.
Investigate: Immediate CT; LP at ≥12 h for xanthochromia if CT negative.
Manage: Neurosurgery; nimodipine to reduce vasospasm.
A 50-year-old has a sudden 'worst-ever' occipital headache peaking within seconds, with neck stiffness. What must be excluded first?
  • AMigraine
  • BSubarachnoid haemorrhage
  • CTension headache
  • DCluster headache
  • ESinusitis
Correct: B — Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Why: A thunderclap headache is subarachnoid haemorrhage until proven otherwise — urgent CT, then LP if needed.
Options:
  • Not thunderclap.
  • (correct)
  • Not sudden/severe.
  • Different pattern.
  • Different.
Subdural haemorrhageImportanttap to open ▾
Venous bleed (bridging veins); elderly/alcoholic/anticoagulated after (often minor) head injury; fluctuating consciousness/confusion over days–weeks. CT shows crescent-shaped collection crossing suture lines.
Who: Elderly, alcohol excess, anticoagulated; may be a trivial injury.
Course: Insidious — headache, confusion, fluctuating GCS over days to weeks.
CT: Crescentic (concave) collection, crosses sutures. Refer neurosurgery.
An 82-year-old on warfarin becomes increasingly drowsy and confused two weeks after a fall. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  • AExtradural haemorrhage
  • BSubdural haemorrhage
  • CMigraine
  • DDelirium tremens
  • ETIA
Correct: B — Subdural haemorrhage
Why: A subdural haemorrhage is likely — elderly, anticoagulated, insidious decline after a fall; CT shows a crescentic collection.
Options:
  • Extradural is acute/lucid interval.
  • (correct)
  • No trauma link.
  • Different context.
  • Transient, not progressive.
Raised intracranial pressureImportanttap to open ▾
Headache worse on waking/lying/straining, vomiting, papilloedema, reduced consciousness, focal signs. Cushing's response (hypertension + bradycardia) is late. Urgent imaging; avoid LP if mass suspected.
Features: Morning/positional headache, vomiting, papilloedema, visual obscurations, falling GCS.
Cushing’s reflex: Late: hypertension + bradycardia + irregular breathing.
Action: Urgent CT/MRI; neurosurgery; do NOT LP if a mass lesion is suspected.
A patient has headaches worse in the morning and on coughing, with vomiting and papilloedema. What do these features suggest?
  • AMigraine
  • BRaised intracranial pressure
  • CTension headache
  • DCluster headache
  • ESinusitis
Correct: B — Raised intracranial pressure
Why: Positional/morning headache with vomiting and papilloedema indicates raised intracranial pressure — image urgently.
Options:
  • Not positional/papilloedema.
  • (correct)
  • No papilloedema.
  • Different.
  • Different.
Head injury: NICE assessmentImportanttap to open ▾
CT head within 1 hour if: GCS <13 on arrival (or <15 at 2 h), suspected open/depressed/basal skull fracture, post-traumatic seizure, focal deficit, or >1 vomit. On anticoagulants → CT within 8 hours.
CT within 1 h: GCS <13 initially or <15 at 2 h; focal deficit; seizure; suspected skull fracture; >1 episode of vomiting.
Anticoagulated: CT head within 8 hours even without other features.
Safety-net: Written head-injury advice on discharge.
An adult on a DOAC had a head injury with no other concerning features. What does NICE advise?
  • ANo imaging
  • BCT head within 8 hours
  • CCT only if symptomatic
  • DMRI
  • EDischarge with advice only
Correct: B — CT head within 8 hours
Why: Anticoagulation alone warrants a CT head within 8 hours after head injury, even without other risk features.
Options:
  • Anticoagulation mandates CT.
  • (correct)
  • Anticoagulation is enough.
  • CT is the modality.
  • Imaging required.
CNS cancerRare · recognise
Primary (glioma, meningioma) or metastases (lung, breast, melanoma). Progressive focal deficit, seizures, raised-ICP headache, personality change. MRI; refer neuro-oncology; dexamethasone for oedema.

Movement, Weakness & Neuromuscular

ParkinsonismCoretap to open ▾
Bradykinesia + rigidity + resting (pill-rolling) tremor. Idiopathic Parkinson's: asymmetric, levodopa-responsive. Refer untreated. Drug-induced parkinsonism (antipsychotics, metoclopramide) is symmetric. Manage by QoL: levodopa if QoL affected.
Triad: Bradykinesia, rigidity, resting tremor (asymmetric in idiopathic PD).
Mimics: Drug-induced (dopamine blockers), vascular, Parkinson-plus (PSP, MSA).
Treat: Levodopa if QoL affected; dopamine agonist/MAO-B if not; avoid abrupt withdrawal; avoid metoclopramide.
A 70-year-old has an asymmetric resting tremor, bradykinesia and rigidity affecting daily life. Best initial drug?
  • ARopinirole
  • BLevodopa
  • CMetoclopramide
  • DHaloperidol
  • EAmantadine
Correct: B — Levodopa
Why: When motor symptoms affect quality of life, levodopa is first-line; dopamine agonists/MAO-B inhibitors are for milder impact.
Options:
  • For milder QoL impact.
  • (correct)
  • Worsens PD.
  • Worsens PD.
  • Adjunct.
Seizures & epilepsyCoretap to open ▾
Epilepsy = recurrent unprovoked seizures; specialist-led diagnosis and drugs. Generalised tonic-clonic: valproate (NOT if able to become pregnant → lamotrigine/levetiracetam). Focal: lamotrigine/levetiracetam. Status ≥5 min → benzodiazepine. DVLA: 12 months seizure-free (Group 1).
Classify: Focal vs generalised; absence (ethosuximide); JME.
First-line: GTC: valproate (avoid if childbearing potential); focal: lamotrigine/levetiracetam.
Status epilepticus: ≥5 min → benzodiazepine → phenytoin → phenobarbitone → GA.
Valproate: MHRA: not in those able to become pregnant (PPP); restrictions in under-55s.
A 24-year-old woman with generalised tonic-clonic epilepsy needs a first-line drug and may conceive. Best choice?
  • ASodium valproate
  • BLamotrigine
  • CPhenytoin
  • DCarbamazepine
  • EEthosuximide
Correct: B — Lamotrigine
Why: Valproate is contraindicated in those who could become pregnant; lamotrigine (or levetiracetam) is first-line for generalised seizures in this group.
Options:
  • Teratogenic — avoid.
  • (correct)
  • Not first-line.
  • Can worsen generalised seizures.
  • Absence only.
Neuropathic painCoretap to open ▾
Burning/shooting/tingling nerve pain, poorly responsive to ordinary analgesia. First-line: amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin (switch if one fails). Trigeminal neuralgia is the exception → carbamazepine.
Recognise: Burning, shooting, allodynia; diabetic, post-herpetic, sciatica, chemo.
First-line: Amitriptyline / duloxetine / gabapentin / pregabalin — switch, don’t stack.
Exception: Trigeminal neuralgia → carbamazepine.
A diabetic has burning, tingling foot pain unresponsive to paracetamol. First-line option?
  • ACodeine
  • BAmitriptyline
  • CIbuprofen
  • DTramadol
  • EMorphine
Correct: B — Amitriptyline
Why: Neuropathic pain is treated first-line with amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin or pregabalin; opioids and NSAIDs are ineffective.
Options:
  • Opioid ineffective.
  • (correct)
  • NSAID ineffective.
  • Opioid.
  • Opioid.
Multiple sclerosisImportanttap to open ▾
CNS demyelination disseminated in time and space; young adults; optic neuritis, sensory/motor/cerebellar relapses. Relapse = new symptoms >24 h without fever. Acute relapse → methylprednisolone. DMTs specialist-led.
Features: Optic neuritis, Uhthoff’s (heat), Lhermitte’s; relapsing-remitting most common.
Diagnose: Lesions disseminated in time and space; MRI/CSF support.
Manage: Relapse → high-dose methylprednisolone; symptom control; DMTs (specialist).
A 30-year-old woman has painful monocular visual loss with reduced colour vision. What is the likely first presentation of MS?
  • ACluster headache
  • BOptic neuritis
  • CBell’s palsy
  • DMigraine aura
  • ECataract
Correct: B — Optic neuritis
Why: Optic neuritis (painful monocular loss, colour desaturation, RAPD) is a common first presentation of MS.
Options:
  • Unrelated.
  • (correct)
  • Facial, not visual.
  • Transient, painless.
  • Painless, gradual.
Motor neurone diseaseImportanttap to open ▾
Mixed UMN + LMN signs with PRESERVED sensation and no sphincter/eye involvement. Riluzole modestly extends survival (monitor LFTs); NIV for respiratory support. Poor prognosis (median 2–3 years).
Hallmark: Combined UMN + LMN signs; sensation and eye movements spared.
Types: ALS, progressive bulbar palsy, progressive muscular atrophy.
Manage: Riluzole (LFT monitoring), NIV, MDT; drooling → antimuscarinic.
A 60-year-old has wasting and fasciculation with brisk reflexes and entirely normal sensation. Most likely diagnosis?
  • AMultiple sclerosis
  • BMotor neurone disease
  • CGuillain-Barré
  • DPeripheral neuropathy
  • EMyasthenia gravis
Correct: B — Motor neurone disease
Why: Mixed upper and lower motor neurone signs with preserved sensation are characteristic of motor neurone disease.
Options:
  • Has sensory/visual signs.
  • (correct)
  • Areflexic, acute.
  • Sensory loss.
  • Fatigable, no wasting early.
Myasthenia gravisImportanttap to open ▾
Fatigable weakness — ptosis/diplopia worse at the end of the day, worse with use. Anti-AChR antibodies; associated with thymoma. Treat pyridostigmine ± immunosuppression. Myasthenic crisis → respiratory support. Beware exacerbating drugs (beta-blockers, aminoglycosides, macrolides).
Features: Fatigable ptosis, diplopia, bulbar and proximal weakness worsening through the day.
Investigate: Anti-acetylcholine-receptor antibodies; CT thorax for thymoma.
Treat: Pyridostigmine; steroids/immunosuppression; avoid exacerbating drugs.
A 40-year-old has drooping eyelids and double vision that worsen through the day and improve with rest. First-line treatment?
  • APrednisolone alone
  • BPyridostigmine
  • CPropranolol
  • DGabapentin
  • EBaclofen
Correct: B — Pyridostigmine
Why: Fatigable weakness is myasthenia gravis; pyridostigmine (anticholinesterase) is first-line symptomatic treatment.
Options:
  • Added later.
  • (correct)
  • Can worsen MG.
  • Unrelated.
  • For spasticity.
SyncopeImportanttap to open ▾
Transient loss of consciousness from global cerebral hypoperfusion. Vasovagal (prodrome, provoked, quick recovery) vs cardiac (exertional, no warning, injury — red flag). All get a 12-lead ECG; cardiac features → refer.
Vasovagal: Prodrome (nausea, sweating), provoked (standing, pain), rapid recovery — reassure.
Cardiac red flags: Exertional or supine syncope, no prodrome, injury, family history of sudden death → ECG + refer.
First test: 12-lead ECG in everyone with syncope.
A young man faints during exercise with no warning and sustains an injury. What is the priority?
  • AReassure — vasovagal
  • B12-lead ECG and cardiology referral
  • CAdvise more fluids
  • DEEG
  • ENo action
Correct: B — 12-lead ECG and cardiology referral
Why: Exertional syncope without prodrome is a cardiac red flag (e.g. HOCM, long QT); do an ECG and refer.
Options:
  • Red flags argue against vasovagal.
  • (correct)
  • Insufficient.
  • Not first for syncope.
  • Unsafe.
TremorImportanttap to open ▾
Resting pill-rolling tremor (improves with movement) = Parkinson's. Postural/action tremor worse with movement, improves with alcohol, familial = essential tremor (propranolol first-line). Intention tremor = cerebellar.
Resting: Parkinson’s — pill-rolling, improves on action.
Postural/action: Essential tremor — familial, alcohol-responsive; propranolol first-line.
Intention: Cerebellar disease.
A patient has a bilateral hand tremor that worsens on reaching for a cup and improves after a glass of wine, with a family history. Diagnosis?
  • AParkinson's disease
  • BEssential tremor
  • CCerebellar tremor
  • DPhysiological tremor
  • EDystonic tremor
Correct: B — Essential tremor
Why: An action tremor that is familial and alcohol-responsive is essential tremor; propranolol is first-line.
Options:
  • Rest tremor, not action.
  • (correct)
  • Intention, with other signs.
  • Not familial/alcohol-responsive.
  • Different.
Gait disordersImportanttap to open ▾
Recognise patterns: parkinsonian (shuffling, festinant, reduced arm swing), cerebellar/ataxic (broad-based), spastic (scissoring, UMN), high-stepping (foot drop, LMN/peripheral), waddling (proximal myopathy).
Parkinsonian: Shuffling, reduced arm swing, festination, freezing.
Ataxic: Broad-based, unsteady — cerebellar or sensory.
High-stepping: Foot drop (common peroneal / L5).
Waddling: Proximal myopathy / pelvic girdle weakness.
A patient walks with a broad-based, unsteady gait and has past-pointing and nystagmus. Which localisation?
  • AParkinsonian
  • BCerebellar/ataxic
  • CSpastic
  • DHigh-stepping
  • EWaddling
Correct: B — Cerebellar/ataxic
Why: A broad-based unsteady gait with cerebellar signs (nystagmus, past-pointing) is an ataxic (cerebellar) gait.
Options:
  • Shuffling.
  • (correct)
  • Scissoring/UMN.
  • Foot drop.
  • Proximal weakness.
Bulbar vs pseudobulbar palsyImportanttap to open ▾
Bulbar (LMN of lower cranial nerves): flaccid/wasted fasciculating tongue, absent jaw jerk, nasal speech. Pseudobulbar (UMN, bilateral): spastic small tongue, brisk jaw jerk, emotional lability.
Bulbar (LMN): Wasted fasciculating tongue, absent/normal jaw jerk, nasal quiet speech.
Pseudobulbar (UMN): Spastic tongue, brisk jaw jerk, emotional lability (labile affect).
Cause: Both seen in MND; pseudobulbar also in bilateral strokes/MS.
A patient has a spastic tongue, a brisk jaw jerk and emotional lability. Which palsy is this?
  • ABulbar (LMN)
  • BPseudobulbar (UMN)
  • CFacial nerve palsy
  • DMyasthenia
  • ECerebellar
Correct: B — Pseudobulbar (UMN)
Why: A brisk jaw jerk, spastic tongue and emotional lability indicate a pseudobulbar (upper motor neurone) palsy.
Options:
  • LMN gives fasciculation/absent jaw jerk.
  • (correct)
  • Different.
  • Fatigable, different.
  • Different.
Facial nerve palsy & Bell's palsyImportanttap to open ▾
LMN facial palsy involves the forehead; Bell's palsy is idiopathic LMN palsy — start prednisolone within 72 hours + eye protection. UMN palsy (spares forehead) = stroke. Consider Ramsay Hunt (vesicles) → add aciclovir.
Localise: Forehead involved = LMN (Bell’s); forehead spared = UMN (stroke).
Bell’s: Prednisolone within 72 h; lubricate/tape the eye; most recover.
Ramsay Hunt: Zoster of geniculate ganglion — ear vesicles → aciclovir + steroid.
A 35-year-old has a sudden one-sided facial droop INVOLVING the forehead, with no other signs. First-line treatment?
  • AAspirin (treat as stroke)
  • BPrednisolone within 72 hours + eye care
  • CCarbamazepine
  • DAciclovir alone
  • ENo treatment
Correct: B — Prednisolone within 72 hours + eye care
Why: Forehead involvement indicates a lower motor neurone (Bell’s) palsy; start prednisolone within 72 hours and protect the eye.
Options:
  • Forehead sparing would suggest stroke.
  • (correct)
  • For trigeminal neuralgia.
  • Only if Ramsay Hunt.
  • Steroids improve outcome.
Nerve problems (mononeuropathies)Rare · recognise
Radial (wrist drop), ulnar (claw hand, C8/T1), median (carpal tunnel), common peroneal (foot drop, fibular neck), axillary (deltoid), Erb’s/Klumpke’s (brachial plexus).
MyopathyRare · recognise
Proximal, symmetrical weakness (difficulty rising/combing hair), often painless; raised CK. Causes: inflammatory (poly/dermatomyositis), drugs (statins, steroids), endocrine (thyroid, Cushing’s), inherited dystrophies.
Weakness & fatigue: approachRare · recognise
Localise: brain/cord (UMN), root/nerve (LMN, dermatomal), NMJ (fatigable — MG), muscle (proximal — myopathy). ‘Fatigue’ alone is usually non-neurological — screen anaemia, thyroid, depression, sleep.

Neuro Drugs

AmitriptylineImportanttap to open ▾
Tricyclic used for neuropathic pain and migraine/tension-headache prophylaxis (low dose). Anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, retention, constipation), sedation, dangerous in overdose (arrhythmia). Caution in elderly, cardiac disease.
Uses: Neuropathic pain; migraine and tension-headache prophylaxis.
Side effects: Anticholinergic (dry mouth, urinary retention, constipation), sedation, weight gain.
Danger: Cardiotoxic in overdose; caution in cardiac disease and the elderly.
Which is a recognised first-line use of low-dose amitriptyline?
  • AAcute migraine attack
  • BNeuropathic pain / migraine prophylaxis
  • CStatus epilepticus
  • DParkinson’s tremor
  • EAcute stroke
Correct: B — Neuropathic pain / migraine prophylaxis
Why: Low-dose amitriptyline is used for neuropathic pain and as migraine/tension-headache prophylaxis, not for acute attacks.
Options:
  • Not for acute attacks.
  • (correct)
  • No role.
  • No role.
  • No role.
Gabapentin / pregabalinImportanttap to open ▾
Gabapentinoids for neuropathic pain (and pregabalin for GAD). Side effects: sedation, dizziness, weight gain, dependence/misuse (now controlled drugs). Dose-reduce in renal impairment.
Uses: Neuropathic pain; pregabalin also for generalised anxiety disorder.
Cautions: Sedation, dizziness, weight gain; misuse potential — Class C controlled drugs.
Renal: Reduce dose in renal impairment.
Why are gabapentin and pregabalin now scheduled as controlled drugs?
  • ACardiotoxicity
  • BRisk of misuse and dependence
  • CTeratogenicity only
  • DHepatotoxicity
  • EThey are not controlled
Correct: B — Risk of misuse and dependence
Why: Gabapentinoids are controlled drugs because of misuse and dependence potential; they also cause sedation and weight gain.
Options:
  • Not the reason.
  • (correct)
  • Not the main reason.
  • Not the reason.
  • They are controlled.