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MRCPsych Paper B · Critical Review & Clinical Specialties

What Paper B Actually Asks

Critical appraisal mirrored to the official RCPsych syllabus, and every clinical specialty with worked questions.
✓ Mapped to the RCPsych syllabus
The critical-appraisal families carry their official syllabus codes and sub-topics, mirroring the RCPsych Paper B Critical Review content; the specialties map to the clinical blueprint (§6–13).

Paper B is a visual paper and a broad one. Below: the critical-appraisal families with exam-style diagrams and syllabus mapping, then every clinical specialty with 5–10 worked questions each. Free to browse; membership unlocks the full banks.

Part 1 · Critical Appraisal — mirrored to the RCPsych syllabus

Every appraisal begins by turning clinical uncertainty into an answerable question with the PECO(t) frame (Patient, Exposure/intervention, Comparison, Outcome, time). The examiners expect you to classify the question type — therapy, harm, aetiology, prognosis, diagnosis, economic or qualitative — because the question type dictates the right study design.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §1.1–1.2
  • ✓ 1.1 PECO(t) formula
  • ✓ 1.2.1 therapy
  • ✓ 1.2.2 harm
  • ✓ 1.2.3 aetiology
  • ✓ 1.2.4 prognosis
  • ✓ 1.2.5 diagnosis
  • ✓ 1.2.6 economic
  • ✓ 1.2.7 qualitative
Know the hierarchy of evidence (systematic reviews/RCTs at the top, expert opinion at the bottom) and how it shifts by question type. Understand publication and language-of-publication bias, the main databases (Cochrane, EMBASE, PsycINFO, PubMed/Medline, CINAHL, SIGLE) and how to search efficiently.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §2.1–2.6
  • ✓ 2.2 hierarchy of evidence
  • ✓ 2.3 publication & language bias
  • ✓ 2.4 databases (Cochrane, EMBASE, PsycINFO, PubMed, CINAHL, SIGLE)
  • ✓ 2.6 efficient searching
SR / MA RCTs Cohort / case-control Case series · expert opinion Higher = stronger evidence
Hierarchy of evidence
Systematic error (selection and measurement bias) versus random error (chance); internal versus external validity. Reliability (inter-rater, test-retest) and validity (construct, content, face, criterion). Sampling methods, confounding and how to reduce it (randomisation, restriction, matching, adjustment), allocation concealment, blinding, and the strengths and weaknesses of each quantitative design (cross-sectional, cohort, case-control, RCT, systematic review).
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.1
  • ✓ 3.1.1 systematic vs random error; internal/external validity
  • ✓ 3.1.3 reliability (inter-rater, test-retest)
  • ✓ 3.1.4 validity (construct, content, face, criterion)
  • ✓ 3.1.5 sampling (random, stratified, systematic, cluster)
  • ✓ 3.1.6 confounding & control
  • ✓ 3.1.7 randomisation methods
  • ✓ 3.1.8 blinding
  • ✓ 3.1.9 causation (Bradford Hill)
  • ✓ 3.1.10 study designs
Exposure Outcome Confounder confounder independently affects both
Confounding — a third factor distorts the link
Categorical (ordinal, nominal, dichotomous) versus continuous data. Summary measures — proportion, mean, median, mode, range, IQR, standard deviation. Interpreting 2×2 and frequency tables, and graphical presentations (bar chart, histogram, pie chart, scatter plot, box plot). Sampling variability and the standard error underpin all inference.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.2.1–3.2.4, 3.2.13
  • ✓ 3.2.1 data types
  • ✓ 3.2.2 summary measures
  • ✓ 3.2.3 tables (2×2, frequency)
  • ✓ 3.2.4 graphs (bar, histogram, pie, scatter, box)
  • ✓ 3.2.13 sampling variability & standard error
mode median mean
Right (positive) skew — mean > median > mode
medianIQR (box)outlier
Box plot — median, IQR and outliers
SD: spread of the data (fixed) SE: precision of the mean (n↑ → SE↓)
SD vs SE — the SE shrinks as n grows
For diagnostic-accuracy studies: sensitivity and specificity (test properties), and prevalence-dependent PPV and NPV. Positive and negative likelihood ratios move pre-test to post-test probability (with a nomogram), and the ROC curve with its area under the curve summarises overall discrimination.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.2.5–3.2.8
  • ✓ 3.2.5 sensitivity, specificity, likelihood ratios
  • ✓ 3.2.6 prevalence, PPV, NPV
  • ✓ 3.2.7 likelihood ratios & nomograms
  • ✓ 3.2.8 ROC curves
1 − Specificity Sensitivity AUCchance (0.5)
ROC curve — sensitivity vs 1−specificity; AUC = discrimination
Disease +Disease − Test +Test − TPFP FNTN Sens=TP/(TP+FN) · Spec=TN/(TN+FP) · PPV=TP/(TP+FP)
2×2 contingency table — the source of every accuracy statistic
pre-test post-test LR+ = sensitivity / (1 − specificity) LR+ >10 rules in · LR− <0.1 rules out
Likelihood ratios move pre-test to post-test probability
Prevalence versus cumulative incidence versus incidence rate. Interpreting survival curves — median survival, relative survival and Kaplan-Meier plots (with the log-rank test and hazard ratio) — and mortality statistics including the crude and age-adjusted death rates and the standardised mortality ratio.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.2.9–3.2.11
  • ✓ 3.2.9 prevalence, cumulative incidence, incidence rate
  • ✓ 3.2.10 survival curves, median survival, Kaplan-Meier
  • ✓ 3.2.11 mortality statistics & SMR
1.00.50 TreatmentControl TimeSurvival
Kaplan-Meier — read median where survival = 0.5
HR 1.0 HR 0.70 (0.55–0.88)CI does not cross 1 → significant ~30% fewer events
Hazard ratio — HR<1 favours treatment
Calculating and interpreting measures of treatment impact: odds ratios, absolute risk reduction and absolute benefit increase, relative risk reduction and relative benefit increase, and the number needed to treat and number needed to harm (NNT = 1/ARR).
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.2.12
  • ✓ 3.2.12.1 odds ratios
  • ✓ 3.2.12.2 absolute risk reduction
  • ✓ 3.2.12.4 relative risk reduction
  • ✓ 3.2.12.6 number needed to treat
  • ✓ 3.2.12.7 number needed to harm
1.0 OR 1crosses 1 → NS OR 2>1 sig OR 3<1 sig (protective)
Confidence interval plot — crossing 1 means non-significant
Case-controloutcome → exposureOdds ratio Cohortexposure → outcomeRisk ratio RCTrandomisedARR · NNT
Which design gives which measure
Null and alternative hypotheses; parametric versus non-parametric tests and when to use each (chi-square, Fisher's exact, McNemar's, paired/unpaired t-test, ANOVA/ANCOVA, Wilcoxon, Mann-Whitney, Kruskal-Wallis). Confidence intervals for means, proportions and their differences, and why CIs beat p-values. Type I and Type II errors, power and sample size.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.2.14–3.2.19
  • ✓ 3.2.14 hypothesis testing
  • ✓ 3.2.15–16 parametric vs non-parametric tests
  • ✓ 3.2.17 confidence intervals
  • ✓ 3.2.18 Type I/II error, power, sample size
  • ✓ 3.2.19 CIs over p-values
1.0 OR 1crosses 1 → NS OR 2>1 sig OR 3<1 sig (protective)
Confidence interval plot — crossing 1 means non-significant
Correlation coefficients (Pearson for parametric, Spearman for non-parametric) and their significance. Interpreting simple linear, multiple and logistic regression. Intention-to-treat analysis and the handling of missing data — last observation carried forward, sensitivity analysis, multiple imputation, best- and worst-case analysis.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.2.20–3.2.22
  • ✓ 3.2.20 correlation (Pearson, Spearman)
  • ✓ 3.2.21 regression (linear, multiple, logistic)
  • ✓ 3.2.22 ITT & missing data (LOCF, imputation, best/worst case)
Predictor (x)Outcome (y)
Regression line — the slope is the coefficient
mean bias +1.96 SD −1.96 SD Mean of the two methods
Bland–Altman — agreement between two methods
The single biggest data-family. Meta-analysis improves power and robustness; know the difference between fixed- and random-effects models. Recognise statistical heterogeneity by visual inspection of the forest plot, the chi-square test and the Galbraith plot; the funnel plot flags publication bias; and sensitivity analysis tests the robustness of the pooled result.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.2.23–3.2.26
  • ✓ 3.2.23 role/limits of meta-analysis
  • ✓ 3.2.24 fixed vs random effects
  • ✓ 3.2.25 heterogeneity (forest plot, chi-square, Galbraith)
  • ✓ 3.2.26 sensitivity analysis
1.0 — line of no effect 0.21.05.0 Study 1 Study 2 Study 3 Study 4 Pooled Diamond = pooled estimateBox size = study weight
Forest plot — pooled estimate, weights, line of no effect
Precision (1/SE) Effect size small studies scatter wide
Funnel plot — symmetry suggests no publication bias
PLACEBO A B C D E No loop between active arms → inconsistency cannot be assessed
Network diagram — a star network has no closed loops
Direct versus indirect costs. The four evaluation types — cost-effectiveness, cost-utility, cost-benefit and cost-minimisation. The quality-adjusted life year (QALY) and the incremental cost-effectiveness ratio (ICER), opportunity cost, discounting, and sensitivity analysis in an economic evaluation.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.3
  • ✓ 3.3.1 direct vs indirect costs
  • ✓ 3.3.2 cost-effectiveness/utility/benefit/minimisation
  • ✓ 3.3.3 QALY/DALY
  • ✓ 3.3.4 opportunity cost
  • ✓ 3.3.6 sensitivity analysis
WTP threshold more effective, more costly ↑ more costlymore effective → ICER = Δcost / ΔQALY
Cost-effectiveness plane and the ICER
without Rx gain in QALYs Quality (utility)Time (years)
QALY — quality × length of life
When to apply qualitative methodologies — grounded theory, phenomenological, ethnographic. Sampling (purposive, convenience, snowball), data gathering (focus groups, interviews), validation (triangulation, member checking), minimising bias (reflexivity, bracketing), analysis (content analysis, constant comparison) and data saturation.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.4
  • ✓ 3.4.1 methodologies (grounded theory, phenomenological, ethnographic)
  • ✓ 3.4.2 sampling (purposive, convenience, snowball)
  • ✓ 3.4.5 validation (triangulation, member checking)
  • ✓ 3.4.6 bias (reflexivity, bracketing)
  • ✓ 3.4.8 data saturation
How NICE and SIGN guidelines are developed, and their advantages and limitations. The reporting statements you must recognise: STARD (diagnostic accuracy), CONSORT (randomised trials), QUORUM/PRISMA (meta-analyses) — and critically appraising each study type and clinical practice guidelines.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §3.5–3.6
  • ✓ 3.5 NICE/SIGN guideline development
  • ✓ 3.6.1 STARD (diagnostic)
  • ✓ 3.6.3 CONSORT (RCTs)
  • ✓ 3.6.6 QUORUM/PRISMA (meta-analysis)
  • ✓ 3.6.7 appraising guidelines
Randomised Group A Group B Followed uplost = attrition Followed uplost = attrition Analysed (ITT) Analysed (ITT)
CONSORT flow — attrition and intention-to-treat
Exposure Outcome Confounder confounder independently affects both
Confounding — a third factor distorts the link
Applying evidence in practice through shared, informed decision-making, and evaluating performance through audit and the Plan-Do-Study-Act (PDSA) cycle, feedback and clinical governance.
  • Syllabus coverage — RCPsych §4–5
  • ✓ 4.1 informed decision-making
  • ✓ 5.1 audit, PDSA cycle, clinical governance
PLANDOSTUDYACT
Audit / PDSA cycle

Part 2 · Clinical Psychiatry & Specialties — worked questions

10 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §7.1.

Common Example Questions

Q1A patient aged 30 man has taken clozapine for several months with good adherence and adequate plasma levels, yet troubling positive symptoms persist. Which augmenting agent has the best evidence?
  1. A Amisulpride
  2. B Fluoxetine
  3. C Clonazepam
  4. D Lithium
  5. E Risperidone
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: When response to clozapine is incomplete despite optimised levels, amisulpride augmentation has the best supporting evidence among the options.
Q2Migration is an established risk factor for schizophrenia. What is the approximate migrant-to-native prevalence ratio for schizophrenia?
  1. A About 1.8 to 1
  2. B About 1 to 1.8
  3. C About 3 to 4
  4. D About 1 to 5
  5. E About 12 to 1
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Although incidence is several-fold higher in migrants, the prevalence ratio settles at roughly 1.8:1 versus the native-born population.
Q3People with schizophrenia are over-represented in deprived inner-city areas. Which explanation attributes this to a decline in social functioning?
  1. A The drift hypothesis
  2. B The double-bind theory
  3. C Societal schism
  4. D The buffering model
  5. E The allostatic model
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The drift hypothesis holds that declining function leads sufferers to move into lower socio-economic, inner-city environments.
Q4Antipsychotics vary in how much they lower the seizure threshold. Which of the newer antipsychotics is the most epileptogenic?
  1. A Clozapine
  2. B Aripiprazole
  3. C Risperidone
  4. D Amisulpride
  5. E Lurasidone
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Clozapine lowers the seizure threshold the most among second-generation agents, in a dose-dependent way.
Q5A man on clozapine for two weeks develops fever and tachycardia, and blood tests raise suspicion of myocarditis. What should be done immediately?
  1. A Stop clozapine and refer to cardiology
  2. B Lower the clozapine dose only
  3. C Repeat cardiac enzymes in a few days
  4. D Begin digoxin after a GP discussion
  5. E Continue and simply observe
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Clozapine myocarditis, most likely in the first weeks, can progress quickly to cardiomyopathy; stop clozapine and refer urgently to cardiology.
Q6A patient has a first relapse of schizophrenia and risperidone is chosen. What is generally the most effective dose?
  1. A Around 4 mg daily
  2. B Around 0.5 mg daily
  3. C Around 12 mg daily
  4. D Around 20 mg daily
  5. E Around 1 mg daily
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: For acute relapse, risperidone around 4 mg/day is typically effective; higher doses mainly add EPSE without extra benefit.
Q7SSRIs differ in whether they have clinically important active metabolites. Which SSRI has an active metabolite?
  1. A Sertraline
  2. B Paroxetine
  3. C Citalopram
  4. D Escitalopram
  5. E Fluvoxamine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Sertraline has an active metabolite (desmethylsertraline); fluoxetine's norfluoxetine is the best known.
Q8A woman on tamoxifen for breast cancer needs an antidepressant. Which choice best avoids reducing tamoxifen efficacy?
  1. A Venlafaxine
  2. B Paroxetine
  3. C Fluoxetine
  4. D Bupropion
  5. E Duloxetine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Potent CYP2D6 inhibitors (paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion) reduce activation of tamoxifen; venlafaxine has minimal CYP2D6 inhibition and is preferred.
Q9Depression is common after stroke and relates to lesion location.
  1. A Basal ganglia and left frontal
  2. B Occipital cortex
  3. C Cerebellum
  4. D Right parietal lobe
  5. E Brainstem
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Major depression after stroke is most associated with left frontal and basal ganglia lesions.
Q10A patient aged 38 man has depression with prominent insomnia and poor appetite. Which antidepressant is particularly suitable?
  1. A Mirtazapine
  2. B Fluoxetine
  3. C Sertraline
  4. D Venlafaxine
  5. E Reboxetine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Mirtazapine's sedative (H1) and appetite-stimulating effects suit depression dominated by insomnia and poor appetite.
7 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §7.2.

Common Example Questions

Q1A mother with bipolar disorder is breastfeeding and needs a mood stabiliser. Which is generally considered relatively compatible with breastfeeding?
  1. A Carbamazepine
  2. B Lithium
  3. C High-dose valproate
  4. D Clozapine
  5. E Long-acting depot antipsychotic
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Carbamazepine is relatively compatible with breastfeeding, whereas lithium is usually avoided due to high infant exposure.
Q2A drug's teratogenic potential is judged against the background malformation rate. What is the approximate baseline rate of spontaneous major malformations?
  1. A About 2-3%
  2. B About 0.01%
  3. C About 20%
  4. D About 50%
  5. E About 10%
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The background rate of major congenital malformations is about 2–3%; a drug is teratogenic if it raises this.
Q3A woman with a history of bipolar disorder is 30 weeks pregnant and taking lithium. What monitoring change is most important as she approaches delivery?
  1. A Stop lithium abruptly at 30 weeks
  2. B Check lithium levels more frequently and adjust around delivery
  3. C Switch to valproate
  4. D Add an SSRI prophylactically
  5. E Do nothing until postpartum
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Lithium clearance changes markedly around delivery; levels must be monitored more frequently and doses adjusted, with careful management peripartum to avoid toxicity or relapse.
Q4A woman develops rapid-onset confusion, elated mood and disorganised behaviour 5 days after giving birth. What is the most appropriate action?
  1. A Reassure — this is normal 'baby blues'
  2. B Emergency psychiatric admission, ideally to a mother-and-baby unit
  3. C Start an SSRI and review in 2 weeks
  4. D Advise sleep and review in a month
  5. E Refer routinely to the health visitor
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Puerperal psychosis is a psychiatric emergency with rapid onset in the early postpartum period; it needs urgent admission, ideally to a mother-and-baby unit.
Q5Which antidepressant is generally considered a preferred choice when treating depression in a breastfeeding mother?
  1. A Fluoxetine
  2. B Sertraline
  3. C Doxepin
  4. D Citalopram at high dose
  5. E Paroxetine in the third trimester
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Sertraline has low levels in breast milk and a good safety record, making it a preferred SSRI in breastfeeding.
Q6A woman with moderate depression in the first trimester asks about treatment. What is the most appropriate first-line option if symptoms are not severe?
  1. A Immediate high-dose SSRI
  2. B A psychological therapy such as CBT
  3. C Valproate
  4. D Lithium
  5. E ECT
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: For mild-to-moderate perinatal depression, a psychological therapy (e.g. CBT) is first-line, reserving medication for more severe or unresponsive illness with a careful risk-benefit discussion.
Q7Which antiepileptic mood stabiliser is absolutely avoided in pregnancy because of high teratogenic and neurodevelopmental risk?
  1. A Lamotrigine
  2. B Sodium valproate
  3. C Levetiracetam
  4. D Carbamazepine
  5. E Gabapentin
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Sodium valproate carries the highest teratogenic and neurodevelopmental risk and is contraindicated in pregnancy under the pregnancy-prevention programme.
7 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §7.4.

Common Example Questions

Q1A clinician assesses suicide risk. Which is the most reliable single predictor of completed suicide?
  1. A Previous suicide attempts
  2. B Female sex
  3. C Being married
  4. D Employment
  5. E Younger age
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: A history of previous suicide attempts/self-harm is the most reliable single predictor of completed suicide.
Q2A patient aged 65 man is brought to A&E with sudden-onset confusion and a focal neurological deficit. What is the most appropriate immediate investigation?
  1. A CT brain
  2. B EEG
  3. C Lumbar puncture first
  4. D Routine outpatient MRI
  5. E No investigation
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Sudden confusion with focal signs needs urgent CT brain to exclude stroke or haemorrhage before psychiatric attribution.
Q3After an episode of self-harm, what should every patient receive regardless of apparent risk?
  1. A Immediate admission
  2. B A psychosocial assessment of needs and risk
  3. C A benzodiazepine
  4. D Discharge with a leaflet
  5. E A blood test only
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: NICE recommends that everyone presenting after self-harm receives a psychosocial assessment of needs and risk, whatever the method or apparent severity.
Q4Which single factor is the strongest predictor of completed suicide?
  1. A Female sex
  2. B A previous suicide attempt or self-harm
  3. C Living alone
  4. D Unemployment
  5. E Chronic pain
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A history of previous self-harm or suicide attempts is the strongest single predictor of future completed suicide.
Q5A patient in the emergency department is acutely agitated and poses a risk; de-escalation has failed. Which is an appropriate first parenteral option?
  1. A IV haloperidol alone
  2. B IM lorazepam
  3. C Oral diazepam only
  4. D IM long-acting antipsychotic
  5. E No medication
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: When de-escalation fails and urgent tranquillisation is needed, IM lorazepam is a recommended first option; combinations and antipsychotics are used with monitoring.
Q6A person is in the community and needs urgent removal to a place of safety by police under mental health legislation. Which section applies?
  1. A Section 2
  2. B Section 3
  3. C Section 5(2)
  4. D Section 136
  5. E Section 117
Reveal answer
Correct answer: D
Reason: Section 136 allows the police to remove a person from a public place to a place of safety for assessment.
Q7Which service model provides intensive home-based support as an alternative to acute admission in a crisis?
  1. A Assertive outreach
  2. B Crisis resolution / home treatment team
  3. C Early intervention in psychosis
  4. D Community rehabilitation
  5. E Liaison psychiatry
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Crisis resolution/home treatment teams offer intensive short-term home-based care as an alternative to hospital admission during a crisis.
7 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §7.5.

Common Example Questions

Q1An inpatient with anorexia on a psychiatric ward develops a cardiac abnormality. Which finding most strongly indicates transfer to a medical unit?
  1. A QTc greater than 520 ms
  2. B Mild bradycardia of 58
  3. C BMI of 16
  4. D A single corrected low potassium
  5. E Cold peripheries
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: A markedly prolonged QTc (>520 ms) indicates high arrhythmia risk and the need for medical management.
Q2A grossly underweight anorexic patient is refed on a medical ward. Which electrolyte disturbance is most characteristic?
  1. A Hypophosphataemia
  2. B Hypernatraemia
  3. C Hypercalcaemia
  4. D Hyperkalaemia
  5. E Hyperchloraemia
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Hypophosphataemia is the hallmark of refeeding syndrome, alongside falling potassium and magnesium.
Q3Which biochemical abnormality is the hallmark of refeeding syndrome?
  1. A Hyperkalaemia
  2. B Hypophosphataemia
  3. C Hypernatraemia
  4. D Hypercalcaemia
  5. E Hyperglycaemia
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Hypophosphataemia is the hallmark of refeeding syndrome, alongside falls in potassium and magnesium, as insulin drives electrolytes intracellularly on refeeding.
Q4A markedly prolonged QTc on ECG in a patient with anorexia nervosa indicates what?
  1. A Low medical risk
  2. B High medical risk requiring urgent attention
  3. C A normal finding in low weight
  4. D A need to stop all monitoring
  5. E An indication to discharge
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: A markedly prolonged QTc (e.g. >520 ms) signals high cardiac risk in anorexia and requires urgent medical attention (MARSIPAN framework).
Q5What is the first-line treatment approach for an adult with anorexia nervosa?
  1. A Compulsory admission
  2. B An eating-disorder-focused psychological therapy (e.g. CBT-ED, MANTRA)
  3. C High-dose olanzapine
  4. D Fluoxetine alone
  5. E Inpatient tube feeding for all
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Adults with anorexia are offered an eating-disorder-focused psychological therapy first (CBT-ED, MANTRA or SSCM); admission is reserved for high medical risk.
Q6Which drug at 60 mg is the evidence-based pharmacological choice for bulimia nervosa?
  1. A Sertraline
  2. B Fluoxetine
  3. C Amitriptyline
  4. D Olanzapine
  5. E Mirtazapine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: B
Reason: Fluoxetine 60 mg is the drug of choice in bulimia nervosa, reducing binge-purge frequency alongside psychological therapy.
Q7Which framework guides the assessment of medical risk in severe anorexia nervosa?
  1. A MARSIPAN
  2. B MAPPA
  3. C CPA
  4. D MAST
  5. E MUST only
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: MARSIPAN (Management of Really Sick Patients with Anorexia Nervosa) guides recognition and management of the medically high-risk patient.
10 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §8.

Common Example Questions

Q1A man in his 70s has just been diagnosed with Lewy body dementia of mild severity and needs drug treatment. Which agent is first-line?
  1. A Rivastigmine
  2. B Haloperidol
  3. C Memantine first-line
  4. D A benzodiazepine
  5. E No treatment
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: A cholinesterase inhibitor such as rivastigmine is first-line in Lewy body dementia and can reduce hallucinations; antipsychotics are hazardous.
Q2A clinician assesses for dementia with Lewy bodies. Which is a core clinical feature?
  1. A Recurrent formed visual hallucinations
  2. B Early prominent amnesia only
  3. C Stepwise decline
  4. D Early aphasia
  5. E Chorea
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Core features of DLB include fluctuating cognition, recurrent formed visual hallucinations, parkinsonism and REM sleep behaviour disorder.
Q3An elderly woman living alone believes people and gases pass through the walls from the neighbours. What is this type of belief called?
  1. A A partition delusion
  2. B A grandiose delusion
  3. C A nihilistic delusion
  4. D An overvalued idea
  5. E A delusion of reference
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Partition delusions are characteristic of very-late-onset schizophrenia-like psychosis.
Q4After several years of Parkinson's disease, a patient develops both dementia and troublesome psychotic symptoms. What is a sensible first step?
  1. A Review anti-parkinsonian medications and consider a cholinesterase inhibitor
  2. B Start a first-generation antipsychotic
  3. C Add an anticholinergic
  4. D Stop all treatment
  5. E Start lithium
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Review the anti-parkinsonian drugs (which can cause psychosis) and consider a cholinesterase inhibitor (rivastigmine).
Q5Depression coexisting with dementia is hard to assess. Which rating scale is designed for this?
  1. A Cornell instrument
  2. B PHQ-9
  3. C Hamilton scale
  4. D EPDS
  5. E GAD-7
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Identifying low mood in someone who also has dementia is hard; the Cornell tool was built for this purpose, combining a patient interview with an informant account.
Q6A patient aged 55 woman is diagnosed with REM sleep behaviour disorder. Which condition is it most associated with developing?
  1. A Dementia with Lewy bodies
  2. B Alzheimer's disease
  3. C Vascular dementia
  4. D Frontotemporal dementia
  5. E Normal-pressure hydrocephalus
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: REM sleep behaviour disorder is strongly associated with later synucleinopathies, particularly dementia with Lewy bodies.
Q7A patient aged 65 man has two years of progressive personality change, disinhibition and apathy with relatively preserved memory. Which dementia is most likely?
  1. A Frontotemporal (frontal-variant) dementia
  2. B Alzheimer's disease
  3. C Vascular dementia
  4. D Lewy body dementia
  5. E Delirium
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Early personality/behavioural change with preserved memory suggests frontotemporal dementia.
Q8A patient aged 66 woman has recurrent small strokes, migraine and a family history, with subcortical white-matter changes. Which inherited cause is likely?
  1. A CADASIL
  2. B Alzheimer's dementia
  3. C Huntington's chorea
  4. D Wilson's disease
  5. E Idiopathic Parkinson's
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: CADASIL is an inherited small-vessel arteriopathy causing migraine, recurrent subcortical strokes and vascular cognitive impairment.
Q9A man has mild cognitive impairment and his family ask about the risk of dementia.
  1. A About 10%
  2. B About 1%
  3. C About 50%
  4. D About 90%
  5. E None progress
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Roughly 10% of people with mild cognitive impairment progress to dementia each year, though some remain stable or revert.
Q10A patient aged 46 man with heavy alcohol use and poor nutrition is hypoglycaemic in hospital. What must be given before or with glucose?
  1. A Parenteral thiamine
  2. B Folate only
  3. C Magnesium alone
  4. D An antipsychotic
  5. E A benzodiazepine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Give parenteral thiamine before glucose to avoid precipitating Wernicke's encephalopathy.
8 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §9.

Common Example Questions

Q1A therapy uses the concepts of 'traps, dilemmas and snags'. Which therapy is this?
  1. A Cognitive analytic therapy
  2. B Cognitive behavioural therapy
  3. C Interpersonal therapy
  4. D Psychoanalysis
  5. E Dialectical behaviour therapy
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: 'Traps, dilemmas and snags' are core reformulation concepts in cognitive analytic therapy (CAT).
Q2Bion described 'basic assumption' states in groups. Which of the following is NOT one of Bion's basic assumptions?
  1. A Catharsis
  2. B Dependency
  3. C Fight-flight
  4. D Pairing
  5. E (the others are all basic assumptions)
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Bion's basic-assumption groups are dependency, fight-flight and pairing; catharsis is not one of them.
Q3A CBT therapist helps a patient examine and re-evaluate beliefs through guided questioning. Which technique is this?
  1. A Socratic questioning
  2. B Free association
  3. C Dream interpretation
  4. D Flooding
  5. E Token economy
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Socratic questioning uses collaborative, guided enquiry to test and revise unhelpful beliefs in CBT.
Q4A patient has depression in the context of HIV illness. Which psychotherapy has established evidence here?
  1. A Interpersonal therapy
  2. B Psychoanalysis
  3. C Flooding
  4. D Aversion therapy
  5. E Psychodrama
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Interpersonal therapy has established evidence for depression in the context of HIV illness.
Q5A clinician reviews psychological treatments for OCD. Which has NO established evidence base in OCD?
  1. A Psychoanalytic psychotherapy
  2. B CBT with ERP
  3. C Exposure and response prevention
  4. D Cognitive therapy
  5. E Behavioural therapy
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Psychoanalytic psychotherapy has no established evidence base in OCD; ERP-based CBT is the treatment of choice.
Q6A form of therapy uses 'reciprocal role reversal' with role-play. Which therapy is this?
  1. A Psychodrama
  2. B CBT
  3. C CAT
  4. D Psychoanalysis
  5. E IPT
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Psychodrama uses techniques such as role reversal and enactment within a group.
Q7A patient with panic disorder asks how psychotherapy compares with medication. Which statement is correct?
  1. A Psychotherapy and pharmacotherapy have broadly comparable efficacy
  2. B Medication is always superior
  3. C Psychotherapy never helps
  4. D Only benzodiazepines work
  5. E Neither is effective
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: In panic disorder, psychological therapy and pharmacotherapy have broadly comparable efficacy; CBT has more durable benefit.
Q8One structured therapy was created chiefly to cut repeated self-harm in emotionally unstable personality disorder. Which therapy is it?
  1. A Dialectical behaviour therapy
  2. B Psychoanalysis
  3. C Supportive counselling
  4. D Hypnotherapy
  5. E Flooding
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Dialectical behaviour therapy was developed specifically to reduce recurrent self-harm in borderline/EUPD.
10 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §10.

Common Example Questions

Q1A patient aged 15 boy has moderate depression; he denies any current thoughts of suicide or plans to harm himself. What is the appropriate first step?
  1. A A psychological therapy such as CBT
  2. B Fluoxetine immediately
  3. C An antipsychotic
  4. D A benzodiazepine
  5. E No treatment
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: For moderate depression in a young person without acute risk, a psychological therapy (e.g. CBT) is offered first; fluoxetine is added if needed.
Q2A patient aged 12 presents with dizziness, tremor and nystagmus and the history suggests substance use. Which class is most likely responsible?
  1. A Inhalants (volatile substances)
  2. B Opioids
  3. C Cannabis
  4. D Benzodiazepines
  5. E Stimulants
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Volatile substance (inhalant) misuse produces dizziness, tremor, nystagmus and ataxia, seen in young adolescents.
Q3A child with conduct disorder and offending behaviour is referred. Which intervention is among the best-developed?
  1. A Multisystemic therapy
  2. B A benzodiazepine
  3. C An antipsychotic alone
  4. D No intervention
  5. E An SSRI alone
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Multisystemic therapy and parent-training/family programmes are among the best-developed treatments for conduct disorder.
Q4A teenager needs medication for obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which SSRI is a suitable choice?
  1. A Sertraline
  2. B Paroxetine
  3. C A tricyclic first-line
  4. D A benzodiazepine
  5. E An antipsychotic
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Sertraline (or fluoxetine) is a suitable SSRI for OCD in young people, combined with CBT/ERP.
Q5A clinician reviews common comorbidity in autistic children. Which is the most common comorbid psychiatric disorder?
  1. A ADHD
  2. B Bipolar disorder
  3. C Dementia
  4. D Schizophrenia
  5. E Anorexia
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: ADHD is the most common comorbid psychiatric disorder in autistic children.
Q6A child has persistent nocturnal enuresis despite advice. Which treatment offers the best long-term cure?
  1. A An enuresis alarm (bell and pad)
  2. B Desmopressin indefinitely
  3. C An antimuscarinic first
  4. D Fluid loading
  5. E Punishment
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The enuresis alarm (bell and pad) gives the best long-term cure; desmopressin is useful short-term.
Q7A patient aged 10 is repeatedly defiant towards his mother, loses his temper often and blames others for his mistakes, without cruelty or law-breaking. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. A Oppositional defiant disorder
  2. B Conduct disorder
  3. C ADHD
  4. D Autism
  5. E Normal behaviour
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Defiant, angry, blaming behaviour without serious rights-violations indicates oppositional defiant disorder.
Q8A trainee is asked which childhood psychiatric disorder shows the highest heritability. Which is it?
  1. A ADHD
  2. B Conduct disorder
  3. C Separation anxiety
  4. D Enuresis
  5. E Adjustment disorder
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: ADHD shows one of the highest heritabilities among childhood psychiatric disorders.
Q9A clinician considers autism-spectrum diagnoses. Which is characterised by normal early language development?
  1. A Asperger's syndrome
  2. B Childhood autism
  3. C Rett's syndrome
  4. D Landau-Kleffner syndrome
  5. E Selective mutism
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Asperger's syndrome is distinguished by normal early language development, unlike childhood autism.
Q10A clinician reviews risk factors for nocturnal enuresis. Which is most predictive?
  1. A A large family size / family history
  2. B Only diet
  3. C Only intelligence
  4. D Handedness
  5. E Birth order alone
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: A family history and larger family size are among the strongest predictors of nocturnal enuresis.
10 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §11.

Common Example Questions

Q1Apart from classic hallucinogens, one common drug can cause 'bad trips' and flashback phenomena. Which is it?
  1. A Cannabis
  2. B Alcohol
  3. C Nicotine
  4. D Caffeine
  5. E Benzodiazepines
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Cannabis, especially high-potency forms, can cause acute anxiety/'bad trips' and flashback-like phenomena.
Q2Anandamide is an endogenous ligand acting at a particular receptor system.
  1. A Cannabis
  2. B Opioids
  3. C Cocaine
  4. D Alcohol
  5. E Nicotine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Anandamide is an endogenous cannabinoid acting at CB receptors — the system through which cannabis acts.
Q3A man is brought to A&E after a street drug, agitated with dilated pupils, tachycardia, hypertension and chest pain. Which drug is most likely?
  1. A Cocaine
  2. B Heroin
  3. C Cannabis
  4. D Alcohol
  5. E A benzodiazepine
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The sympathomimetic picture indicates cocaine; manage with benzodiazepines and cardiac care.
Q4A patient presents in amphetamine withdrawal. Which feature is most likely?
  1. A Hypersomnia
  2. B Insomnia
  3. C Dilated pupils
  4. D Hypertension
  5. E Fever
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Amphetamine withdrawal ('crash') features hypersomnia, increased appetite, fatigue and dysphoria.
Q5A clinician lists the features of Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which is NOT a feature?
  1. A Hyperthermia
  2. B Confusion
  3. C Ophthalmoplegia
  4. D Ataxia
  5. E Nystagmus
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Wernicke's classically features confusion, ophthalmoplegia and ataxia; hyperthermia is not typical.
Q6A man in opioid detoxification has autonomic withdrawal symptoms and a raised blood pressure. Which non-opioid agent eases withdrawal?
  1. A Lofexidine
  2. B Naltrexone
  3. C Disulfiram
  4. D Acamprosate
  5. E Bupropion
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Lofexidine, an alpha-2 agonist, reduces autonomic opioid-withdrawal symptoms; monitor blood pressure.
Q7A clinician is asked to identify a classic synthetic hallucinogen. Which is it?
  1. A LSD
  2. B Cannabis
  3. C Cocaine
  4. D Heroin
  5. E Alcohol
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: LSD is the classic synthetic hallucinogen (lysergic acid diethylamide).
Q8A dependent drinker stops abruptly.
  1. A Within the first 24 hours
  2. B After one week
  3. C After a month
  4. D Only after two weeks
  5. E Never in the first day
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Alcohol-withdrawal seizures usually occur within the first 24 hours; delirium tremens peaks later at 48–72 hours.
Q9A patient stopping long-term benzodiazepines develops symptoms. Which is a frequent feature?
  1. A Insomnia
  2. B Hypersomnia
  3. C Bradycardia
  4. D Miosis
  5. E Weight gain
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Insomnia, anxiety, tremor and perceptual disturbance are frequent in benzodiazepine withdrawal; seizures can occur.
Q10A patient takes acamprosate to maintain abstinence from alcohol.
  1. A Glutamate and GABA neurotransmission
  2. B Dopamine only
  3. C Opioid receptors only
  4. D Serotonin reuptake
  5. E Acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Acamprosate modulates glutamatergic and GABAergic transmission, reducing craving; disulfiram acts on acetaldehyde dehydrogenase.
8 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §12.

Common Example Questions

Q1Stalking has been studied by victim-perpetrator relationship. What is the most commonly reported type?
  1. A Men stalking women known to them
  2. B Strangers stalking strangers
  3. C Women stalking male celebrities
  4. D Children stalking teachers
  5. E Groups stalking individuals
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The most commonly reported pattern is men stalking women they know, often ex-partners.
Q2Antisocial personality disorder is over-represented in custody. What is its approximate prevalence among male UK prisoners?
  1. A About 50%
  2. B About 5%
  3. C About 1%
  4. D About 90%
  5. E About 0.1%
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Antisocial personality disorder affects of the order of 50% of male sentenced prisoners in UK studies.
Q3Crime is unevenly distributed across offenders.
  1. A About 5%
  2. B About 50%
  3. C About 25%
  4. D About 80%
  5. E About 1%
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: A small group of prolific offenders — around 5% — accounts for close to half of all reported crime.
Q4Long-term follow-up studies have examined what most drives violent behaviour in people living with mental illness. Which factor is the strongest contributor?
  1. A Comorbid substance misuse
  2. B The diagnosis alone
  3. C Medication
  4. D Age alone
  5. E Intelligence
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Across cohort studies, the factor contributing most to violence among people with mental illness is concurrent misuse of alcohol or drugs, rather than the psychiatric diagnosis itself.
Q5The MacCAT-T is a structured aid for judging a patient's capacity to make a treatment decision. Which ability does it NOT assess?
  1. A Verbal memory
  2. B Understanding
  3. C Appreciation
  4. D Reasoning
  5. E Expressing a choice
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The MacCAT-T assesses understanding, appreciation, reasoning and expressing a choice — not verbal memory.
Q6A clinician is asked about antisocial personality disorder in female prisoners. What is its approximate prevalence?
  1. A About 30%
  2. B About 1%
  3. C About 80%
  4. D About 5%
  5. E About 60%
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Antisocial personality disorder affects roughly 30% of female prisoners in UK studies, lower than in male prisoners.
Q7A defence of automatism is considered. Which statement is correct in law?
  1. A Automatism due to epilepsy counts as insane automatism
  2. B All automatism is treated as sane
  3. C Automatism can never be raised as a defence
  4. D Sleepwalking is always sane automatism
  5. E Hypoglycaemia is insane automatism
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Because epilepsy is an internal (disease-of-the-mind) cause, an epileptic automatism is treated in law as insane automatism, which changes the disposal available to the court.
Q8A patient on lithium is co-prescribed an antipsychotic. Which combination raises the risk of neurotoxicity?
  1. A Lithium with haloperidol
  2. B Lithium with lorazepam
  3. C Lithium with zopiclone
  4. D Lithium with propranolol
  5. E Lithium with an SSRI
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Combining lithium with haloperidol (and some other antipsychotics) can increase neurotoxicity risk; monitor closely.
8 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §13.

Common Example Questions

Q1A patient aged 6 boy has moderate learning disability, a long face, large ears and post-pubertal macro-orchidism. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. A Fragile X syndrome
  2. B Down syndrome
  3. C Klinefelter syndrome
  4. D Prader-Willi syndrome
  5. E Williams syndrome
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The phenotype indicates Fragile X syndrome, the commonest inherited cause of learning disability.
Q2A young man with fragile X syndrome is assessed in the learning disability clinic. Which speech feature is characteristic?
  1. A Cluttered, disordered speech
  2. B Perfect syntax
  3. C Selective mutism
  4. D Complete absence of speech
  5. E Foreign accent syndrome
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Fragile X syndrome is associated with cluttered, disordered speech and social anxiety.
Q3A non-verbal adult with severe learning disability develops new distress that staff attribute to the disability. What is this error called?
  1. A Diagnostic overshadowing
  2. B Over-investigation
  3. C Malingering
  4. D Normal variation
  5. E Confabulation
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Diagnostic overshadowing is attributing a new health problem to the existing learning disability, missing a treatable cause.
Q4A mother asks why her daughter with Down syndrome is more mildly affected than expected. Which genetic mechanism can explain a milder phenotype?
  1. A Mosaicism
  2. B Full trisomy 21
  3. C Robertsonian translocation always
  4. D Uniparental disomy
  5. E Ring chromosome
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Mosaic Down syndrome (a proportion of normal cell lines) can be associated with a milder phenotype.
Q5A clinician distinguishes subcultural from pathological learning disability. Which supports a subcultural rather than neuropathological cause?
  1. A Mild learning disability with affected family members
  2. B Profound disability
  3. C Dysmorphic features
  4. D Seizures
  5. E Focal neurology
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Mild learning disability with similarly-affected family members and no organic signs supports a subcultural (polygenic/social) explanation.
Q6A patient aged 13 girl with severe intellectual disability has severe challenging behaviour needing medication after non-drug measures. Which is commonly used, with review?
  1. A Risperidone
  2. B Clozapine
  3. C Chlorpromazine
  4. D A depot first-line
  5. E High-dose haloperidol
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: A low-dose atypical such as risperidone is commonly used for severe challenging behaviour, with regular review (STOMP principles).
Q7A patient aged 45 man with Down syndrome shows decline in memory and skills. Which condition should be considered first?
  1. A Early-onset Alzheimer's disease
  2. B Normal ageing
  3. C Only depression
  4. D Always delirium
  5. E No condition of note
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: People with Down syndrome have a high risk of early-onset Alzheimer's disease; also exclude reversible causes.
Q8A genetic syndrome is associated with schizotypal features and psychosis risk. Which is it?
  1. A Fragile X syndrome
  2. B Turner syndrome
  3. C Klinefelter syndrome
  4. D Prader-Willi syndrome
  5. E Cri-du-chat
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Fragile X syndrome is associated with schizotypal traits and social anxiety; 22q11.2 deletion is also strongly psychosis-linked.
7 worked questions mapped to RCPsych §6.

Common Example Questions

Q1A clinician is asked about the epidemiology of persistent depressive disorder. What is the approximate lifetime prevalence of dysthymia?
  1. A About 4%
  2. B About 0.1%
  3. C About 20%
  4. D About 50%
  5. E About 90%
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The lifetime prevalence of dysthymia (persistent depressive disorder) is around 4%.
Q2A rating instrument retains the features of a clinical examination during the interview. Which is it?
  1. A Present State Examination
  2. B PHQ-9
  3. C GAD-7
  4. D AUDIT
  5. E EPDS
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The Present State Examination (PSE) is a semi-structured instrument that retains aspects of a clinical examination.
Q3A person presents with a first, unclear episode of severe mental disturbance and needs to be detained so the team can assess and begin treatment. Which section of the Mental Health Act is most appropriate?
  1. A Section 2
  2. B Section 3
  3. C Section 5(2)
  4. D Section 136
  5. E Section 117
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Section 2 allows detention for assessment (with treatment) for up to 28 days when the diagnosis or treatment need is unclear.
Q4A patient aged 40 woman has a five-year history of multiple, recurrent, changing physical symptoms across systems with no adequate medical explanation. What is the diagnosis?
  1. A Somatisation disorder
  2. B Hypochondriasis
  3. C Malingering
  4. D Factitious disorder
  5. E Conversion disorder
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Somatisation disorder is characterised by multiple, recurrent, changing physical symptoms over years without adequate physical explanation.
Q5Miss Megan repeatedly attends convinced she has a serious illness despite negative investigations and reassurance. What is the diagnosis?
  1. A Hypochondriasis (health anxiety)
  2. B Somatisation disorder
  3. C Malingering
  4. D Conversion disorder
  5. E Delusional disorder
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Persistent conviction of having a serious illness despite reassurance and normal tests is hypochondriasis/health anxiety.
Q6A service wants to offer intensive support at home as an alternative to admission during an acute crisis. Which team provides this?
  1. A Crisis resolution and home treatment team
  2. B A day hospital
  3. C An assertive outreach team for stable patients
  4. D A memory clinic
  5. E A liaison team
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: Crisis resolution / home treatment teams provide intensive community support during acute crises, aiming to prevent or shorten hospital admission.
Q7A patient with complex needs and several agencies involved requires a structured framework to coordinate their care, with a named coordinator and a care plan. Which framework is this?
  1. A The Care Programme Approach
  2. B A community treatment order
  3. C Section 117 aftercare alone
  4. D A tribunal
  5. E Supervised discharge only
Reveal answer
Correct answer: A
Reason: The Care Programme Approach (CPA) coordinates care for people with complex needs, with assessment, a care plan, a care coordinator and regular review.